Would making distinction change nature of economic analysis


Problem

Early economists made a distinction between needs and wants. Needs were economists' concern; wants were of far less importance.

a. Is such a distinction useful?

b. Would making such a distinction change the nature of economic analysis?

c. Does the fact that the book makes no distinction between luxuries and necessities other than in their elasticity of demand reflect a bias in economic analysis? (Religious)

The response should include a reference list. Double-space, using Times New Roman 12 pnt font, one-inch margins, and APA style of writing and citations.

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