Will a decision based on npv change with irr
Question: When using the IRR approach, when can the internal rate of return be determined simply by dividing the initial outlay by the cash flows? Will a decision that is based on NPV ever change if it were based on IRR instead? Why or why not?
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Will a decision that is based on NPV ever change if it were based on IRR instead? Why or why not?
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What is the relationship of risk associated with a higher IRR? How does this relationship reflect the 'Risk-Return Trade-Off' principle?
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