Why the phase is different for two wave functions


1. Show that if we multiply that wave function by an arbitrary phase, it has no effect on macroscopic probability. The phase angle is arbitrary as long as the same phase is used. Suppose that we know the wave function for a system.

2. Demonstrate that the probability will be complex which is unphysical and therefore rejected. Suppose, by mistake, the phase is different for two wave functions.

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Chemistry: Why the phase is different for two wave functions
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