Why does united states have absolute advantage in both goods


Suppose that each U.S. worker can produce 8 units of food or 2 unit id clothing daily. In Fredonia, which had the same number of workers, each worker can produce 7 units of food or 1 unit of clothing daily. Why does the United States have an absolute advantage in both goods? Which country enjoys a comparative advantage in Food? Why?

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Microeconomics: Why does united states have absolute advantage in both goods
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