Why does the distinction make economic sense


Problem

The "harm-benefit" test for compensation says that compensation should be paid for regulations that confer public benefits, but not for regulations that prevent public harm. Does this distinction make economic sense? How might one draw a sensible line between a benefit conferred and a harm prevented?

The response should include a reference list. Double-space, using Times New Roman 12 pnt font, one-inch margins, and APA style of writing and citations.

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Macroeconomics: Why does the distinction make economic sense
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