Why does growth in only one factor lead to an ultra-protrade


Problem

1. In a small country, why does growth in only one factor lead to either an ultra-protrade or an ultra-antitrade production effect?

2. Can growth in the abundant factor ever lead to an expansion of the trade triangle if the Rybczynski theorem holds in the case of a small country?

3. What type of consumption effect will take place if the export good is an inferior good?

The response should include a reference list. Double-space, using Times New Roman 12 pnt font, one-inch margins, and APA style of writing and citations.

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International Economics: Why does growth in only one factor lead to an ultra-protrade
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