QUESTION 1 : Which USCG mission helps boats and ships to determine their position or safe course, and warns of dangers or obstructions to navigation, such as rocks or shallow water?
A. Marine safety
B. Aids to navigation
C. Ports, waterways, and coastal security
D. Search and rescue
QUESTION 2 : US Navy maritime security operations can occur only in peacetime or in phases 4 or 5 of a joint operation or campaign.
True
False
QUESTION 3 : US Navy power projection has naval aviation and sea-based cruise missiles, but it lacks sealift capability and amphibious assets.
True
False
QUESTION 4 : The US Navy supports the joint force commander in phases 3, 4, and 5 of an operation. The Navy does not offer shaping or deterrence operations.
True
False
QUESTION 5 : The US Navy has a few specially equipped submarines that have a dry deck shelter that allows them to insert special operations forces (SOF), clandestinely, in essentially all the oceans of the world.
True
False
QUESTION 6 : As described in the lesson,refers to the ability to project military force in contested areas with sufficient freedom of action to operate effectively. It includes cyberspace operations and integrated fires.
A. Deterrence
B. Maritime security
C. All-domain access
D.None of the above
QUESTION 7 : The US Navy protects U.S. sovereignty and counters threats such as weapons Proliferation, terrorism, transnational crime, piracy, illegal exploitation of the maritime environment, and unlawful seaborne immigration.
A. Sea control
B. Maritime security
C. Power projection
D. All-domain access
QUESTION 8 : is a method of underway replenishment. It employs helicopters to move goods from delivery to customer ships.
A. Connected replenishment (CONREP)
B. Vertical replenishment (VERTREP)
QUESTION 9 : The Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV) and Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) have operational control (OPCON) over US Navy combat forces.
True
False
QUESTION 10 : US Navy sea control occurs only during conflict and refers specifically to the armed struggle to control the seas.
True
False
QUESTION 11 : As described in the lesson, identify the key considerations for the deployment of amphibious forces as a Marine Air-Ground Task Force (MAGTF).
A. Potential degradation of specific combat skills that cannot be exercised while at sea
B. Potential degradation of equipment readiness, due to the lack of use for extended periods
C. Advantage gained by not requiring a benign port or airfield for preparing for combat
D. All of the above
E- Only A and B
QUESTION 12. The Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC) is directly responsible to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) for the total performance of the Marine Corps.
True
False
QUESTION 13 : Participation in World War I was viewed as the introduction of the United States Marine Corps to the world at large.
True
False
QUESTION 14 : The is the smallest Marine Air-Ground Task Force (MAGTF) with a fully capable aviation element that can perform all six functions of Marine aviation, and it is self-sustaining for 30 days.
A- Corps
B. Division
C. Brigade
D. Battalion
QUESTION 15 : The Marine Corps concept of creating expeditionary combined arms forces that exploited the synergy of task-organized Marine aviation, combat service support, and ground combat forces was codified by the
A. National Security Act of 1947
B. Goldwater Nichols Act of 1986
C. DOD Directive 5100.01
D. National Military Strategy
QUESTION 16 : Within a Marine Air-Ground Task Force (MAGTF), the is formed around an infantry organization reinforced with artillery, reconnaissance, assault amphibian, tank, and engineer forces.
A. Command element
B. Ground combat element
C. Aviation combat element
QUESTION 17 : Which one is an US Marine core competency?
A. integrated combined arms
B. Complex expeditionary operations
C. Joint forcible entry from the sea
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B
QUESTION 18 : A Marine Air-Ground Task Force (MAGTF) is capable of operating as the landing force of an amphibious task organization.
True
False
QUESTION 19 : A Marine Expeditionary Force (MEF) typically deploys by echelon within 60 days of sustainment, but can extend operations with external support from other US Services or through host-nation support (HNS) agreements.
True
False
QUESTION 20 : Within a Marine Air-Ground Task Force (MAGTF), the may be employed from ships or forward expeditionary land bases, and it can readily transition between sea bases and land bases without loss of capability. It has the capability of conducting command and control (C2) across the battlespace.
A. Command element
B. Ground combat element
C. Aviation combat element
D. Logistics combat element
QUESTION 21 : Who approves air allocation?
A. Joint force commander (JFC)
B. Joint force air component commander (JFACC)
C. Joint force land component commander (JFLCC)
D. Air operations center (AOC)
QUESTION 22 : The Joint Forces Air Component Commander (JFACC) must be an Air Force officer.
True
False
QUESTION 23 : An unmanned aircraft system (UAS) may be capable of transferring control of the aircraft and/or payloads to multiple operators while airborne.
True
False
QUESTION 24 : Because unmanned aircraft systems (UASs) have shorter endurance times, they typically can avoid other aircraft in a shared airspace.
True
False
QUESTION 25 : is air action by fixed- and rotary-wing aircraft against hostile targets that are in close proximity to friendly forces and that require detailed integration of each air mission with the fire and movement of those forces.
A. Strategic attack
B. Air interdiction
C. Close air support
D. Global mobility
QUESTION 26 : Which one is an enduring contribution of the US Air Force?
A. Nuclear deterrence operations
B. Global vigilance
C. Global reach
D. Air and space superiority
QUESTION 27 : is the determination and assignment of the total expected effort by percentage and/or priority that should be devoted to the various air operations for a given period of time.
A. Apportionment
B. Allocation
C. Distribution
D. Interdiction
QUESTION 28 : is an air operation conducted to divert, disrupt, delay, or destroy the enemy's military surface capabilities or to otherwise achieve objectives that are conducted at such distances from friendly forces that detailed integration with friendly forces is not required.
A. Strategic attack
B. Air interdiction
C. Close air support
D. Global mobility
QUESTION 29 : Which division within the Air Operations Center (AOC) executes the air tasking order (ATO) and runs the joint air operations center ()AOC) floor?
A. Strategy division
B. Combat plans
C. Combat operations
D. ISR division
B. Air mobility division
QUESTION 30 : The air tasking order (ATO) is described as process of reasoning by which the air component commander considers all the circumstances affecting the military situation and decides on a COA to be taken to accomplish the mission.
True
False
QUESTION 31 : Based on the Army's revised operational concept, how many echelons are there above the brigade?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
QUESTION 32 : is direction or exercise of authority over subordinate or other organizations in respect to administration and support.
A. Administrative control (ADCON)
B. Operational control (OPCON)
C. Common user logistics (CUL)
D. Executive agent (EA)
QUESTION 33 : The Army supports each functional combatant command (FCC) with an Army Service component command (ASCC).
True
False
QUESTION 34 : The Army service component command (ASCC) supports modernization, transformation, and training of Army forces deployed in the area of responsibility (AOR).
True
False
QUESTION 35 : A theater army assigned to a geographic combatant commander (GCC) provides a regionally oriented, long-term Army presence for military engagement and security cooperation, but not for deterrence.
True
False
QUESTION 36 : If the joint force commander (JFC) elects to establish a joint security area (JSA) within the joint operations area (JOA), the normally determines its structure and its controlling headquarters (HQ).
A. Army Service Component Command
B. Theater Army
C. Joint Force Land Component Command (JFLCC)
D. Army Force (ARFOR)
QUESTION 37 : These forces maintain proficiency in the fundamentals of decisive action, but also possess particular capabilities tailored for one or more of the missions specified for a geographic combatant command (GCC).
A- Regionally aligned forces
B. Operating force
C. Generating force
D. Army support to other Services (ASOS)
QUESTION 38 : The is the primary interface between the combatant commander and the Department of the Army. It is responsible for administration and support of all Army forces assigned, attached, or under the operational control (OPCON) of the geographic combatant commands (GCC).
A. Corps
B. Division
C- Field army
D- Theater army
QUESTION 39 : The identifies the responsibilities of the military departments. The generating force and operating forces of the Army divide responsibility for carrying out these functions.
A. National Security Strategy (NSS)
B. National Military Strategy (NMS)
C. DODD 5100.01
D. Army Operating Concept (AOC)
QUESTION 40 : Which echelon is best suited to mission command land forces in major operations in a single joint operations area (JOA)?
A. Field army
B. Theater army
C. Corps
D. Division
QUESTION 41 : is the execution of activities that involve a combination of lethal and nonlethal actions by a specially trained force with indigenous forces or personnel in politically sensitive and/or hostile environments.
A. Surgical strike
B. Direct action
C. Counterterrorism (CT)
D. Special warfare
QUESTION 42 : The theater special operations command (TSOC) commander is the senior SOF advisor in the theater. In this capacity he advises the geographic combatant commander (GCC) as well as the service component commanders from the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marines on the proper employment of SOF.
True
False
QUESTION 43 : SOF's ability to act in favorable ways in regard to national interests when other instruments of national power cannot or should not be used, or when an adversary believes the United States lacks the ability or will to act appropriately, can provide relative decisive advantage.
True
False
QUESTION 44 : are planned operations to convey selected information and indicators to foreign audiences to influence their emotions, motives, objective reasoning, and ultimately the behavior of
Foreign governments.
A. Military support information operations
B. Civil affairs operations
C. Counterterrorism operations
D. Counterinsurgency operations
QUESTION 45 : Which operation is planned and executed to conceal the identity of or permit plausible denial by the sponsor? Emphasis is placed on concealment of the sponsor identity.
A. Camouflaged
B. Covert
C. Concealed
D. Clandestine
QUESTION 46 : Identify the statements that characterize SOF. (Select all that apply.)
A. SOF are inherently joint.
B. SOF are not distinct from conventional forces.
QUESTION 47 : Special operations are applicable across the range of military operations, and all SOF are either covert or clandestine.
True
False
QUESTION 48 : Offensive operations in support of hostage rescue and recovery can include the recapture of US facilities, installations, and sensitive material overseas.
True
False
QUESTION 49 : consists of short-duration strikes and other small-scale offensive actions conducted in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to seize, destroy, capture, exploit, recover, or damage designated targets.
A. Direct action
B. Unconventional warfare
C. Counterterrorism
D. Special reconnaissance
QUESTION 50 : As described in the lesson, what is the center of gravity (COG) for an integrated counterinsurgency (COIN) effort?
A. The host government
B. The population
C. Concealment of the sponsor and the operation
D. Special reconnaissance to support psychological operations