Assignemnt
Q1. A key characteristic of an effective project team is that:
a. Members have graduate degrees in project management
b. Members come from the same professional background
c. Members see themselves as stakeholders in the project
d. Members adhere to a prescribed pecking order
Q2. The critical path:
a. Provides the duration of a project
b. Has the shortest duration on a project
c. Is the most expensive path to implement
d. Contains the project's most significant tasks
Q3. A tool that graphically shows cost variance is:
a. A chart of accounts
b. A code of accounts
c. A histogram (also called a resource loading chart)
d. A cumulative cost curve (also called S-curve)
Q4. If you want to shorten the length of a project, you must:
a. Shorten the critical path
b. Shorten the free float
c. Spend more money
d. Cut back on the features you plan to deliver
Q5. The Theory X approach to managing workers is a classic example of a top-down view of how people should be managed.
a. true
b. false
Q6. Which of the following is a scope planning tool?
a. Benefit/cost analysis
b. WBS
c. Earned Value analysis
d. Fast tracking
Q7. Which of the following shows resource allocation over time?
a. Resource Gantt chart
b. Resource matrix
c. S-Curve
d. Resource leveling
Q8. If EV = $300, AC = $400, and the project budget is $1,000, what is the estimated final cost of the project (this is known as EAC, estimate at complete)?
a. $750
b. $1,000
c. $1,250
d. $1,333
Q9. Under what conditions may a project manager accept a change request?
a. If the request has no effect on project objectives, deadlines, or resources
b. If the request has no effect on project objectives, although it has effects on deadlines and resources
c. If the request is coming from a valued customer
d. If the request is from the Chief Executive Officer
Q10. There is a definite link between the level of risk an enterprise encounters and project time frame.
a. true
b. false
Q11. Concurrent engineering involves overlapping tasks and phases to accelerate a project's schedule.
a. true
b. false
Q12. The resource planning tool that enables us to identify who we need to carry out what tasks is called:
a. A resource Gantt chart
b. A resource matrix (also called the responsibility chart)
c. A resource ogive
d. A resource loading chart (also called a resource histogram)
Q13. When we have objective data on the probability of an event, we are involved with decision making under certainty.
a. true
b. false
Q14. A key weakness of the Benefit-Cost ratio project selection mechanism is that:
a. It only focuses on things that can be measured
b. It takes time frame into consideration
c. It is too much based on subjective judgment
d. It does not entail prioritizing
Q15. Scope creep means:
a. Needs emergence and identification
b. Uncontrolled changes to a project's requirements during project execution
c. Migration of project needs to requirements
d. Imprecise scope statement
Q16. Which of the following is an elapsed time task?
a. Paint is drying
b. A painter paints the wall
c. Software is being written
d. A sandwich is being made
Q17. A challenge of the matrix project organization is that:
a. Team members are full of ego
b. Team members are selected from the same functional area
c. Team members have divided loyalties
d. It enables functional managers to provide career guidance to their workers
Q18. The purpose of mid-project evaluation is:
a. Continual monitoring of budget and estimates
b. To focus on achievement of individual element of the project plan
c. To determine whether the original objectives are still relevant
d. To re-baseline the project budget
Q19. Using working time or elapsed time to calculate the time it will take to complete a task produces the same results.
a. true
b. false
Q20. Top-down estimates (also called parametric estimates):
a. Are based on historical trends
b. Can be derived from the WBS
c. Can be determined by analyzing work packages
d. Provide accurate assessments of project costs
Q21. Milestones, like tasks, consume resources.
a. true
b. false
Q22. Good functional requirements
a. Describe how the deliverable should be developed
b. Provide detailed technical insights into what the deliverable will do
c. Describe what the deliverable looks like and what it should do
d. Are created after development of the technical specifications
Q23. In risk management, insurance is an example of:
a. Risk avoidance
b. Risk deflection
c. Risk acceptance
d. Contingency planning
Q24. A project can be terminated prematurely because the original objectives may no longer be valid.
a. true
b. false
Q25. Structured Walk-Through is a methodology used in:
a. PERT
b. GERT
c. VERT
d. Project Evaluation
Q26. According to PMI, a WBS should focus on
a. Tasks
b. Deliverables
c. Interrelationships among activities
d. Cost of the project
Q27. The poor man's hierarchy is a method for:
a. Project estimation
b. Project scheduling
c. WBS construction
d. Project selection
Q28. A laissez-faire management style may lead to a ship without rudder syndrome.
a. true
b. false
Q29. Which of the following is an example of a project?
a. Maintaining e-mail addresses
b. Capacity planning
c. Submitting travel and expense reports
d. Sending monthly reports to top management
Q30. Which of the following methods involves performing tasks in parallel?
a. Crashing
b. Fast tracking
c. Leveling
d. Hammocking
Q31. In resource planning, one of the issues that needs to be considered is:
a. Staff empowerment
b. Technical requirements of the project
c. Theory X management principles
d. Theory Y management principles
Q32. A key objective of change control in configuration management is to keep track of actions taken in response to change requests.
a. true
b. false
Q33. A major strength of task Gantt charts is that they can:
a. Offer a sophisticated model of a project
b. Show how many resources will be used on the project
c. Show the interdependencies of tasks
d. Show actual versus planned schedule status
Q34. The type of management whose focus is on activities whose variances lie outside the acceptable range is:
a. Management by Objectives
b. Management by Exception
c. Management by Walking Around
d. Management by Control Limits
Q35. Definitive estimates are generally derived from:
a. Bottom-up estimates
b. Top-down estimates
c. Expert judgment cost estimates
d. Order of magnitude estimates
Q36. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective reporting system?
a. SMART
b. KISS
c. MBO
d. LOWBALLING
Q37. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate that sets the present value of cash outflow equal to the present value of cash inflow.
a. true
b. false
Q38. Rapid prototyping is a methodology for:
a. Specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them
b. Specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating later changes to them with minimum customer in put
c. Triggering early warning of unauthorized changes to the original prototype to enable project management to take remedial actions
d. Working closely with customers by creating and updating prototypes that respond to customer input
Q39. Confidence in the accuracy of a cost estimate increases when top-down and bottomup estimates converge.
a. true
b. false
Q40. Functional requirements provide us with detailed technical specifications.
a. true
b. false.