What kind of utility function of wealth might be consistent, Financial Management

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What kind of utility function of wealth might be consistent

What kind of utility function of wealth might be consistent with an individual gambling and paying insurance at the same time?

Suppose that A>B>C>D and that the utilities of these alternatives satisfy U(A) + U(D) = U(B) + U(C).

Is it true that U(-B + is greater than U(4/1 + +D) because the former has a smaller variance? Why or why not?

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