1. In which of these situations would an agoraphobic be most likely to exhibit avoidance or fear?
a. touching an insect
b. swimming in a backyard pool
c. being at the top of a tall building
d. sitting in the middle of a row in a crowded theater
2. Anxiety is a reaction to
a. avoidance.
b. impaired insight.
c. anticipated future problems.
d. an immediate threat from the environment.
3. Which of the following is one of the DSM-5 criteria used to identify panic attack?
a. shows gradual build-up over several days
b. reaches peak intensity within 10 minutes
c. involves a blend of several negative emotions
d. involves preoccupation with words rather than images
4. Which of the following is appropriately matched?
a. acrophobia: fear of heights
b. claustrophobia: fear of open spaces
c. altaphobia: fear of flying
d. hemophobia: fear of insects
5. Fear is not considered phobic unless
a. the person avoids contact with the source of the fear or experiences intense anxiety in the presence of the feared stimulus.
b. the fear is generalized to more than one stimulus.
c. the person has a failed attempt to repress the fear.
d. the person experiences a parasympathetic storm.
6. What are compulsions?
a. a type of obsession
b. normal feelings of drive
c. intrusive, unwanted thoughts
d. irrational, repetitive behaviors
7. How do clinical obsessions differ from normal obsessions?
a. They differ in degree rather than kind.
b. Clinical obsessions are more visually oriented.
c. The content of the reported images is different.
d. Clinical obsessions are more likely to be acted upon.
8. Amy loves collecting coffee mugs and has been collecting them for years. At the drop of a hat, she will launch into a discussion of her collection, the price of mugs, and her plans for purchasing more mugs. Her friends say she must have obsessive-compulsive disorder. You disagree. What do you say to her friends when they ask why you disagree?
a. Unlike an obsessive-compulsive, Amy derives pleasure from this activity.
b. Although Amy experiences anxiety, it is the result of a deep-seated conflict.
c. Amy is actually suffering from depression, which she hides by engaging in mug collecting.
d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is an inherited disorder and there is no evidence that other family members have the disorder.
9. Bill worries about a long list of concerns. He finds himself constantly thinking about these topics at work, when he exercises, and as he tries to sleep. He is easily fatigued, can't concentrate, and is often restless. He has been worrying like this for the past year. Bill seems to meet the criteria for the diagnosis of
a. agoraphobia.
b. social phobia.
c. generalized anxiety disorder.
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
10. What is an essential element of the diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
a. The obsessions develop in response to the compulsions.
b. The person engages in compulsions, which increases anxiety.
c. The person's sleep is disrupted by nightmares.
d. The person tries to ignore, suppress, or neutralize the unwanted thoughts or impulses.
11. How does the prevalence of anxiety disorders among the elderly compare to the prevalence among other age groups?
a. The prevalence rate is lower among the elderly.
b. The highest prevalence rates are found among the elderly.
c. The prevalence rates are virtually identical across the life span.
d. Whether the rates are high or low depends on both age and gender.
12. In Western societies anxiety is most frequently associated with work performance, whereas in non-Western societies, anxiety is most frequently associated with
a. family or religious concerns.
b. personal appearance.
c. intimate relationships.
d. educational achievement.
13. The preparedness model of phobic acquisition holds that phobias develop in response to
a. stimuli to which the person has had little exposure.
b. objects with symbolic associations to sex and aggression.
c. any neutral stimulus paired with an unconditioned stimulus.
d. objects and situations that are fear-relevant.
14. Research has consistently found evidence that problems with anxiety show up at high rates in people who believe that
a. they are in control of a situation.
b. they are not in control of events.
c. events are their fault.
d. important people have treated them badly.
15. Several lines of research have clarified the basic cognitive mechanisms involved in generalized anxiety disorder, as well as in panic disorder. Experts now believe that a factor that plays a crucial role in the onset of this process is
a. depression.
b. conditioned responses.
c. the hypothalamus.
d. attention.
16. A patient with panic disorder tends to interpret the rapid beating of his heart as a heart attack; a cognitive psychologist would call this
a. automatic thinking.
b. catastrophic misinterpretation.
c. illusion of predictability.
d. "what-if" thinking.
17. The two different pathways in the brain involved in the detection of danger differ from one another with respect to
a. their roles in panic disorder versus specific phobia.
b. the amount of conscious thinking and reasoning.
c. the detection of reality-based versus unrealistic threats.
d. their presence in humans versus lower animals.
18. An inhibitory neurotransmitter that functions to reduce levels of anxiety is called
a. MAO.
b. dopamine.
c. GABA.
d. glutamate.
19. Systematic desensitization involves
a. suppression of phobic thoughts.
b. insight into unconscious motivations.
c. exposure to the feared item while maintaining relaxation.
d. dampening of physiological reactions with medication.
20. Flooding refers to the
a. recovery of repressed memories.
b. exposure to highly feared objects.
c. rebound effect after thought suppression.
d. side effects of antianxiety medications.
21. Alex suffers from agoraphobia, and while in treatment he is asked to repeatedly confront places like crowded shopping malls and theaters that he has been avoiding. The treatment he is receiving is
a. stimulus generalization.
b. stimulus discrimination.
c. situational exposure.
d. avoidance reconditioning.
22. Exposure and response prevention is most effective in the treatment of
a. panic attacks.
b. social phobias.
c. generalized anxiety disorder.
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
23. Which category contains the drugs known as benzodiazepines?
a. antimanic
b. antipsychotics
c. antidepressants
d. minor tranquilizers
24. Which of the following are examples of the benzodiazepine class of drugs?
a. Zoloft and Paxil
b. Valium and Xanax
c. Haldol and Thorazine
d. Elavil and Stelazine
25. Which of the following drugs is the first-line treatment for panic disorder and social anxiety?
a. antianxiety drugs
b. anticonvulsants
c. barbiturates
d. SSRIs
26. Which of the following is a good definition of dissociation?
a. separation from loved ones
b. withdrawal from intimate relationships and social isolation
c. disruption of the mental processes of memory, consciousness, identity, and perception
d. the disengagement of physiological from psychological processes
27. Which of the following events would fit the DSM description of situations that could lead to posttraumatic stress disorder?
a. The car Ted was driving spun out of control and almost fell off a bridge; in the car, Ted waited helplessly to be rescued.
b. While driving on the interstate, Kevin passes the site of a serious bus accident that is commemorated by a stone monument.
c. The roller coaster ride was faster and had more turns than Alice had been told before she agreed to go on the ride with her friends.
d. The newspaper account of a bank robbery and the resulting gun fight between the robbers and police contained more vivid details than Frank expected.
28. Your textbook discusses the case of Stephanie, who is a victim of rape. For months after her assault, Stephanie was constantly on the lookout for new threats. This condition is called
a. hypersensitivity.
b. hypovigilance.
c. hypervigilance.
d. Korsokov's syndrome.
29. Marjorie has just experienced a traumatic event; she is feeling cut off from herself and her environment and reports feeling like a robot. A mental health professional would say that Marjorie is experiencing
a. derealization.
b. depersonalization.
c. amnesia.
d. flashbacks.
30. Which of the following variables predicted lower rates of posttraumatic stress disorder in emergency workers after Hurricane Katrina?
a. hardiness
b. extraversion
c. responsibility
d. sensation seeking
31. As a clinician, you would be most concerned about the probability of posttraumatic stress disorder in a victim of which of the following?
a. rape
b. natural disaster
c. minor car crash
d. expected death of a loved one
32. A national study found that approximately ___ percent of the people in the United States suffered from PTSD at some point.
a. 2
b. 7
c. 12
d. 15
33. What is the single most common traumatic event that can lead to PTSD?
a. rape
b. losing a job
c. combat exposure
d. sudden unexpected death of a loved one
34. A person with acute stress disorder is most likely to develop posttraumatic stress disorder when
a. the trauma is especially severe.
b. the trauma involves the possibility of death.
c. symptoms of numbing, depersonalization, and reliving the trauma are present.
d. the person develops a complete amnesia for the traumatic event.
35. The National Comorbidity Study found that the course of posttraumatic stress disorder is best described as follows:
a. The person fully recovers.
b. Symptoms tend to diminish gradually.
c. Most people with PTSD report symptoms of the disorder 10 years later.
d. PTSD usually leads to severe alcohol and drug problems.
36. Research on social factors and the risk of posttraumatic stress disorder suggests a role of social support in the etiology of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). It was found that veterans
a. who didn't face the embarrassment of being treated as heroes had lower rates of PTSD.
b. from units that encouraged independence had lower rates of PTSD.
c. who did not receive social support on their return had high rates of PTSD.
d. who had high social support through the Veterans Administration still had high rates of PTSD.
37. Twin research shows that _______________ account(s) for IQ deficits that have been mistakenly attributed to brain damage due to trauma.
a. preexisting differences
b. damage caused by drug treatment of the PTSD
c. abnormal biological adaptations to stress
d. environmental differences
38. Research on social factors and the risk for PTSD focuses primarily on the nature of the trauma, the individual's level of exposure to it, and __________________.
a. genes
b. unconscious disassociation
c. levels of cortisol
d. the availability of social support following the trauma
39. Following September 11, New York City college students had lower rates of PTSD if they were better at enhancing and suppressing emotional expression. This is an example of what psychologist Edna Foa calls emotional processing, which involves three key stages. Which of the following is one of her stages?
a. Victims need to engage in specialized counseling as soon as possible after the event.
b. Victims must engage emotionally with their traumatic memories.
c. Victims need to find a way to forget about their chaotic experience.
d. Victims must come to believe that the world is a terrible place.
40. When people with PTSD are able to integrate the experience of trauma and find some broader reason or higher value for enduring it, they are engaging in the task of
a. emotional reintegration.
b. meaning making.
c. intellectualizing.
d. denying the reality of their pain.
41. The term given to positive changes resulting from trauma is
a. posttraumatic growth.
b. hardiness.
c. integration.
d. meaning making.
42. Which of the following types of medication is most often prescribed for PTSD?
a. antianxiety medications
b. antihypertensive medications
c. antidepressant medications
d. stimulant medications
43. Jane has been diagnosed with PTSD and has begun seeing a psychotherapist. Which of the following will be the most important strategy for her therapist to employ to achieve long-term benefit?
a. reexposure to the traumatic event
b. stress-inoculation training
c. emotional distancing
d. reactivation of defense mechanisms
44. Some psychologists do not see hypnosis as an altered state of consciousness. How are they likely to view being hypnotized?
a. a form of depersonalization
b. a form of dissociative amnesia
c. a sign of predisposition to dissociation
d. a response to suggestion and expectations
45. What is a cause of dissociative amnesia?
a. malingering
b. brain injury
c. emotional distress
d. neurotransmitter imbalance
46. One of the greatest controversies in psychology today is the issue of recovered memories. Some individuals argue that such memories reveal past sexual abuse; others disagree. What is one of the concerns for those who raise questions about recovered memories?
a. Therapists may be suggesting the existence of such memories to their clients.
b. Many people cannot tell the difference between reality and what they may have dreamed.
c. Some psychotic individuals are reporting their delusions as examples of claimed sexual abuse.
d. Some clients are deliberately creating memories of sexual abuse in order to sue individuals against whom they have held grudges.
47. Neisser and Harsch interviewed people about how they learned about the explosion of the space shuttle Challenger, and what they were doing at the time. They interviewed people at the time of the explosion, and then three years later. What did they find at the three-year follow-up?
a. leading questions led to false memories
b. hardly anyone remembered what they were doing
c. about one-third had vivid but inaccurate memories
d. nearly everyone showed accurate memories of where they were
48. Multiple personality disorder is now known as
a. depersonalization.
b. selective amnesia.
c. dissociative fugue.
d. dissociative identity disorder.
49. To test the role-playing hypothesis of dissociative identity disorder (DID), Nicholas Spanos and colleagues conducted analogue experiments in which they asked college students to play the role of an accused murderer. What have these studies shown?
a. Role playing causes dissociative identity disorder
b. The symptoms of DID can be induced through hypnosis
c. The ease of role-taking correlates with risk for DID
d. Most individuals deny having a "hidden part," even under hypnosis
50. Iatrogenesis refers to
a. state-dependent learning.
b. inability to recognize faces.
c. emotional reliving of past experiences.
d. treatment that causes, not cures, a disorder.