The questions in this section test your knowledge and also

Question

1.        Remember to keep a copy of your answers. 2.        Read the learner instructions carefully before you start with your assignment. 3.        DO NOT leave out any questions! Please contact your study advisor if you do not understand a question. 4.        The suggested time to complete a module is 3 months. 5.        NB!! Due to the fact that evidence provided has to be current, this assignment is ONLY valid for 6 months from the date of receipt. If you take longer than 6 months to complete this assignment and module, please contact the College to get the latest assignment for this module. 6.        Please check that you received the correct assignment before you start with the assignment. The assignment number and module number is indicated on the first page. BMT College takes no responsibility for students who complete incorrect assignments. If you received an incorrect assignment contact the college so that this can be rectified.

Learner Instructions for the Summative Assignment:

Section A: Short Objective Questions

The questions in this section test your knowledge and also your ability to apply your knowledge. Read each question carefully and select one correct answer. Indicate your answer on the yellow assignment cover sheet that was posted with this assignment. You have to mark your answer under Section A on the second page of the cover sheet.

Section B and C: Essay and Application Questions

The questions in this section test your ability to apply your knowledge. When completing a question based on a case study, read and study the applicable case study carefully. Then read the questions that are based on that case study. Make sure that you understand the question before you attempt the answer. For this section you have to type your answers on a blank page.

Answers to the assignment questions for Section B and C must be typed as this eliminates the possibility of an assessor marking the answers incorrect due to the illegibility (unclearness) of your handwriting. Computer Literacy is an entry requirement for the programme.

• Each question must be clearly numbered.
• Draw a line after each answer.
• Use single sheets, front side only. (Double pages must be cut loose on the sides)
• When you are asked to list or to explain a question you have to use your own words to reflect your understanding and your knowledge.

Submitting your assignment:

• Make sure your name, surname and student number is on every page.
• Place your summative assignment (answer sheets) inside the provided YELLOW Portfolio of Evidence (POE) cover sheet. Ensure that you use the correct colour assignment cover when you submit your assignment. BLUE for formative assessments and YELLOW for the summative assessments.

• Your POE must look like a book with a YELLOW BMT College cover.
• Hand deliver your POE to BMT College or post it to BMT College, Private Bag X100, Bryanston, 2021.
• Always keep a copy of your assignment (should your assignment be lost in the post) as BMT College can take no responsibility for assignments lost in the post.
• Each POE must be certified under oath (at any police station or post office) to be the original work of the candidate.
• Only the original certified POE will be accepted for assessment. No photocopied, faxed, e-mailed or any other than the original certified POE will be accepted for assessment.

Results of your formative and summative assignments:

• Your final mark will be outlined in a results letter at the end of each study unit.
• To pass, you need a pass mark of 50% PLUS you need to be found competent against the assessment criteria of the specific topics in the study module.
• However, if a result of not yet competent (NYC) was determined against an assessment, you will be notified by the assessor. The assessor will give you step by step guidelines on what additional evidence needs to be collected in order to gain competence against that specific assignment. As soon as you have gained competency you will be able to start with your next study module.
• Even though your progress will be followed by a study advisor, it will not be possible for the assessor to comment on each question in your POE. This preventative measure is taken to eliminate irregularities of sharing memorandum answers with fellow students. You are required to answer all your questions without the help of any other person other than a study advisor of BMT College.

Opposing your results:

According to the policies of BMT College, you have the right to appeal against the results of your studies. When opposing your mark, you are required to fill in an Assessment Appeals Form (No. BMTC FRM5060-02). This form can be downloaded from the website or requested directly from the College. The Assessment Appeals Form needs to be submitted to the College.

Barriers and special needs of Learner:

Please do not hesitate to contact BMT College if there are any barriers that could affect the fairness of the assessment in any manner.

Plagiarism Policy:

The unauthorised used of the thoughts and languages of another author or copying another student's work will not be tolerated by BMT College. Violating this policy may lead to a zero mark on an assignment. Remember that assignments are set to help you and to assess your progress. Be careful not to copy or use parts of another student's work as this will only disadvantage you and may lead you to failing this qualification if this comes under the attention of the Academic Board of BMT College.

	Section A: Short objective question (Multiple Choice and True or false )
	Complete the following questions by marking the correct answer on section A of the yellow assignment cover sheet. Each question counts 1 mark.
Nr:	Question:
1.	The unitarist perspective a)             denies the notion of inherent, built-in conflict and therefore regards unions as dysfunctional and unnecessary. b)              views the competitive conflict between management and labour as rational and inevitable. c)              assumes that workers are oppressed for the sake of capitalist interests. d)              views conflict between business and labour as undesirable. e)              None of the above
2.	Equity theory historically focused on  justice.
	a)     procedural b)     distributive c)     interpersonal d)     organisational e)     interactional
3.	Gloria thinks that she is paid less than other workers in her division and feels extremely resentful. She starts taking long breaks and generally wasting time. Her actions were a result of her perceiving what kind of injustice? a)     interactive b)     interpersonal c)     procedural d)     distributive e)     interactional
4.	Jessica believes that she received an appropriate salary increase this year but she does not believe that the company's methods for determining salary increases were fair. She believes that there is a problem with the firm's justice.
	a)     interpersonal b)     distributive c)     equity d)     procedural e)     outcome
5.	People who perceive that they are victims of interactional/interpersonal injustice tend to blame their immediate supervisor rather than the organisation at large. Why is this? a)         Interactional/interpersonal justice or injustice is intimately tied to the conveyer of the information. b)         Interactional/interpersonal injustice can only occur during face-to-face encounters. c)         When people are not treated with respect they tend to retaliate against those closest to hand. d)         Interactional/interpersonal injustice is in the eyes of those who perceive they are disrespected. e)         Interactional/interpersonal injustice is most often the result of impersonal policies of the organisation.
6.	If no one is aware of conflict, it is generally agreed that
	a)         employee-employer relations will be good b)         conflict is subversive c)         no conflict exists d)         conflict is inevitable e)         conflict is psychologically driven as opposed to physically manifest

Nr:	Question:
7.	Power can be defined as
	a)          the ability to influence the behaviour of others b)          the actualisation of the dependency of others c)          congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led d)          downward influence on one's followers e)          upward influence on one's leaders
8.	The most important aspect of power is probably that it
	a)          is needed to get things done in an organisation b)          is a function of dependency c)          tends to corrupt people d)          is counterproductive e)          involves control
9.	Which of the following statements is true concerning power? a)          Trust and mistrust affect the expression of power. b)          A person can have power over you only if he or she controls something you desire. c)          Power requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led. d)          To be effective, power must be actualised. e)          In order to have power, a person must impose their control over others.
10.	One reacts to power out of fear of the negative ramifications that might result if one fails to comply.
	a)     legitimate b)     coercive c)     punitive d)     referent e)     abusive
11.	When your superior offers you a raise if you will perform additional work beyond the requirements of your job, he/she is exercising                                power.
	a)     legitimate b)     coercive c)     reward d)     personal e)     reflective
12.	Which of the following types of power requires acceptance of the leader's authority by members of the organisation? a)     personal b)     organisational c)     legitimate d)     positional e)     balanced
13.	Personal power is generally perceived as a result of all the following except
	a)     expertise b)     charisma c)     persuasiveness d)     admiration e)     skill
14.	power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits.
	a)       Associational b)       Legitimate c)       Referent d)       Personal e)       Source

Nr:	Question:
15.	Your physician has advised you to take a series of medications. You comply because of her                             power.
	a)    referent b)    information c)    formal d)    expert e)    personal
16.	Employers are often uncertain as to which questions they may ask without discriminating. Can a woman be asked if she is pregnant during an interview? a)       Under no circumstances. b)      Yes, if it is relevant to the type of work that she will be doing, for example if she has to travel a lot. c)       This question will only be allowed if she applied for a receptionist position as she will not be able to be off sick. d)      Yes, this is not a discriminatory question as it does not relate to her race or gender.
17.	Any number of employers associated together for the purpose whether by itself or with other purposes of regulating relations between employers and employees or trade unions is a/an a)       trade union association b)      workers association c)       labour association d)      employers' organisation
18.	In the company the shop steward has a position equivalent to that of a a)       senior manager b)      HR manager c)       legal advisor d)      none of the above
19.	A typical union structure include some of the following institutions except for a)       general membership b)      local branches c)       regional offices d)      workplace forums
20.	Business Unity South Africa (BUSA) was created in 2003 when two main business federations merged, namely a)         Business South Africa (BSA) and the Black Business Council (BBC) b)         NEDLAC and Business South Africa (BSA) c)         Afrikaanse Handelsinstituut (AHI) and The Chamber of Commerce and Industry (Chamsa) d)         None of the above
21.	Examples of industrial trade unions include a)       PEU, IFAWU and SABO b)      NUM, Numsa and SATAWU c)       POPCRU and AAWU d)      J & GU, P&T and PSA
22.	By being a member of a trade union the workers a)       feel less threatened by the employer b)      can aim their anger towards the employer in a joint way c)       regains their sense of community and past values such as justice, security and faith d)      all of the above
23.	The four major stakeholders that participate in Nedlac include a)         organised labour, organised business, government and the community b)         organised labour, employers' organisations, Department of Labour and rural people c)         Cosatu, Nactu and Fedusa d)         All of the above

Nr:	Question:
24.	The aims of the following Act are to promote societal and organisational justice a)               The Labour Relations Act and Basic Conditions of Employment Act b)               The Labour Relations Act, Basic Conditions of Employment Act and the Skills Development Act c)               The Labour Relations Act, Basic Conditions of Employment Act and Employment Equity Act d)               The Labour Relations Act, Basic Conditions of Employment Act, Employment Equity Act and Skills Development Act.
25.	The	plays a significant role in influencing and shaping the laws of South Africa.
	a)   b)   c)   d)	Nedlac and the Department of Labour the external environment, Nedlac and the Department of Labour Department of Labour Nedlac
26.	The	is the supreme law of the country.
	a)   b)   c)   d)	common law Constitution Labour Relations Act Basic Conditions of Employment Act
27.	What does the Labour Relations Act mean for employees? Every employee has the right to... a) form a trade union or join one and participate in its activities. b)  strike provided he/she complies with legislative procedures. c)  be consulted by employers on various proposals if there is a workplace forum d) take part in joint decision-making with management on various proposals as part of the collective bargaining process (such as the adoption of a new disciplinary code) e)  all of the above
28.	What does the Labour Relations Act mean for employers? Every employer has the right to... a)  form an employers' organisation or join an employers' organisation. b)  lock out workers as a retaliatory action to a strike. c)  insist that the procedures laid down by the Labour Relations Act (LRA) for employees intending to go on strike are adhered to. d) dismiss employees for misconduct, incapacity or retrench employee for operational reasons, provided that in all instances the employer complies with the LRA. e)  All of the above
29	The Labour Relations Act primarily seeks to ... a) provide a framework within which the rights and obligations of employees, unions, employers and employers' organisations are spelt out bearing in mind fundamental rights conferred by the Constitution and obligations incurred by the Republic as a member of the International Labour Organisation. b) provide collective bargaining in the determination of wages, terms and conditions of employment, and other matters of mutual interest c)  promote effective resolution of labour disputes. d)  All of the above
30.	If staff are engaged in a 'go slow', are these employees on strike according to definition under section 213 of the LRA? a)   Yes, a 'go slow' represents 'retardation of work', and can be considered as strike action. b)  No, a go slow is not a refusal to work. c)  No, a strike means the partial or complete concerted refusal to work. d)   None of the above.

 

31.	Jona Dlamini owns a closed corporation named Wizard Garden services. He is responsible for the maintenance of Country Roads Nursery School every week day, 8 till 5 o'clock. Jona hopes to save enough money to buy his own garden equipment to be able to service other gardens. According to the LRA is Jona an employee of Country Roads Nursery School or an independent contractor? a)  Jona is an independent contract as he is economically independent from Country Roads Nursery School. b)  Jona is an independent contractor as he is not subject to the control and direction of Country Roads Nursery School. c)  Jona is an independent contractor as he is does not form part of Country Roads Nursery School. d)  Jona is an employee of Country Roads Nursery School as he works for them 40 hours per month, every month, and they supply him with tools and equipment.
32.	What does the Basic Conditions of Employment Act mean for employees? Every employee has the right to... a) be advised of his/her rights and obligations in terms of employment law and other legislation that impacts on the employment relationship, such as the Labour Relations Act, the Employment Equity Act, the Unemployment Insurance Act, etc. b)  be protected against victimisation for exercising any rights in terms of the Labour Relations Act. c) work reasonable hours, be paid the appropriate notice on termination of service and be protected against any unlawful deductions by the employer. d)  a and b e)  a and c
33.	An employer asks Mary to work overtime until 19H00 and does not offer transport to the employee. The employee works in an area where taxis stop operating after 18H00. Mary does not have any alternative transport from work, this means that the she has to walk home after dark. When Mary joined her company she signed an employment contract agreeing to work overtime on reasonable demand. Can Mary refuse to work overtime in the above scenario? a)  No, her employment contract stipulated that she should be available for overtime. b)   No, she can nor refuse as it is not the employers responsibility to make transport available to employees. c)  Yes, section 7(b) of the BCEA states that every employer must regulate the working time of each employee with due regard for the health and safety of employees. d)  No, section 10(1)(a) states subject to this Chapter, an employer may not require or permit an employee to work overtime except in accordance with an agreement.
34.	Is a casual worker that works eight hours each Saturday for an employer entitled to paid annual leave? a) No, this chapter does not apply to employees who work more than 24 hours. b)  Yes, casual workers who work more than 24 hours per month are covered by the BCEA, and the employer would have to refer to section 20(2)(b) for the calculation. c)  Yes, casual workers who work more than 24 hours per month are covered by the BCEA, and the employer would have to refer to section 20(2)(a) for the calculation. d)  Yes, casual workers who work more than 24 hours per month are covered by the BCEA, and the employer would have to refer to section 22(1)(a) for the calculation.
35.	Jacob is absent from work for three days. He advised his manager that he was not feeling well and consulted a traditional healer. Jacob returns to work and provides a letter from the healer to the HR manager. She frowns at his letter, upon which he informs her that she must respect his African culture. Does Jacob's company have to accept this letter and pay for sick leave? a) No, section 23(1) of the BCEA states the medical certificate must be issued and signed by a medical practitioner or person who is certified to diagnose and treat patients, and who is registered with a professional council. b) No, section 23(2) of the BCEA states the medical certificate must be issued and signed by a medical practitioner or person who is certified to diagnose and treat patients, and who is registered with a professional council. c) No, section 23(3) of the BCEA states the medical certificate must be issued and signed by a medical practitioner or person who is certified to diagnose and treat patients, and who is registered with a professional council. d)  Yes, section 23(1) of the BCEA states any medical certificate can be issued and the practitioner or person who is certified to diagnose and treat patients does not have to be registered with a professional council in such cases of traditional healers.

Nr:	Question:
36.	What does the Employment Equity Act mean for employees? Every employee has the right to... a)  equal opportunity in the workplace. b)  the elimination of unfair discrimination. c)  have employers take measures to address the disadvantages of designated groups. d)  be able to express concerns to management as to barriers to advancement. e)  all of the above
37.	Can an employer refuse to hire a woman because she is pregnant? a)   No, this would be discrimination. b)  Yes, it is referred to as fair discrimination if the job involves a health risk to the woman or foetus. c)  Yes, depending on how far the employee is pregnant. d)   Yes, depending on if the employee has to travel or not.
38.	An employee feels that he/she is being discriminated against. What action can the person take to redress the situation? a)  The employee should refer the matter to the CCMA or bargaining council. b)   The employee must first lodge a grievance against the discriminator with the company.
39.	Is it discrimination if a Chinese Restaurant serving Chinese cuisine appoints candidates along racial lines? a)    No, if the job requires it, it is not unfair to appoint along racial or ethnic origin lines, as per section 6(2) (b). b)   Yes, as per section 6(1) no person may be unfairly discriminate against an employee in any employment policy or practice on one or more grounds, including race, gender, sex etc.
40.	In terms of the Employment Equity Act, two people apply for a position, the black and white person have equal abilities, but the white applicant has more relevant experience, who should get the job? a)  The white person should get the job, because he/she has more experience. Section 15(1) states 'affirmative action measures are measures designed to ensure that suitably qualified people from designated groups have equal employment opportunities...' b)  Section 20(5) of the EE act states that 'an employer may not unfairly discriminate solely on the ground of that person's lack of relevant experience'. If the black person can do the job, work experience may be discounted
41.	What are some of the typical affirmative action measures taken by employers? a)  Providing accommodation for their staff. b)  A company could have a policy in place that ensures fair recruitment procedures, e.g. no favouritism or nepotism, and that, where there is an imbalance in the workforce, there is an increased intake from disadvantaged groups. c)   Vacancies could be made known to all internal staff so that all staff have an equal opportunity to apply for jobs. d)   a and b e)   b and c
42.	According to the EE Act, is it required that the employer has a workforce representative of the demographic profile of the country or region where it operates? a)  Yes, the EEA sets numerical goals and quotas. b)  No, the EEA does not sets numerical goals and quotas, but requires employers to take appropriate and remedial action where there is an employment equity imbalance.
43.	The Employment Equity Plan, must state amongst others a) the objectives to be achieved for every month of the plan. b) the affirmative action measures to be implemented. c) the duration of the plan, which may not be shorter than two years and longer than ten years. d)  the procedures that will be used to monitor and evaluate the implementation of the plan and whether reasonable progress is being made towards implementing employment equity. e)  b and d

Nr:	Question:
44.	The EEA2 report indicates a)  the company's workforce profile, showing race and gender and people with disabilities, each year both by occupational category and occupational level. b)  to the Employment Conditions Commission of average remuneration for the five highest and lowest paid people in each category. c)  the number of staff recruited, promoted, trained and terminated, the reason for termination, and the numerical goals set by the employer. d)  a and c e)  a and b
45.	Who takes ultimately responsibility for the monitoring and implementation of the Employment Equity plan? a)       The company's senior managers b)       The CEO or Managing Director c)       The Employment Equity Committee d)       The Employees e)       None of the above
46.	What does the Skills Development Act mean for employers? The SDA encourages employers to... a)          use the workplace as an active learning environment. b)         force employees to upgrade their skills and knowledge. c)          provide new entrants to the labour market with opportunities to gain work experience. d)         a and c e)          a and b
47.	What does the Skills Development Act mean for employees? The SDA encourage a)       work seekers to find work. b)       retrenched employees to re-enter the labour market. c)       employees to develop skills that can be used in the workplace. d)       all of the above
48.	The functions of the National Skills Authority (NSA) include a)   advising the minister on national skills development policy and strategy and conducting investigations. b)   establishing an institutional and financial framework such as the National Skills Fund c)    reporting to the Minister on progress made in the implementation of the national skills development strategy d)     b and c e)     a and c
49.	What is a SETA? a)    A SETA is the organising body, in conjunction with trading organisations in a specific sector, that works to implement the sector's skills plan. b)     A SETA is the body responsible to place people on learnerships. c)     A SETA is responsible for conducts investigations on reputable training institutions. d)      A SETA must accredit training programmes on the NQF.
50.	Does the Skills development levy paid on the remuneration of all employees include those employees who do not pay tax? a)    According to section 3(4) of the Skill Development Levies Act, the levy is only paid on employees who pays tax. b)    According to section 3(4) of the Skill Development Levies Act, the levy is only paid on employees who do not pay tax. c)   According to section 3(4) of the Skill Development Levies Act, the levy to be paid must be based on the remuneration of both employees, those who pay tax and those who do not pay tax because they earn below the income tax threshold. d)    None of the above

Nr:	Question:
51.	Is there any relationship between the amount of money an employer spends in terms of its training and development budget and the amount of the levy that is refunded by the SETA? a)   Yes, the employer will receive the exact amount spend on training as a grant. b)   No, there are two mandatory grants paid by the SETA to the employer. The first grant is paid for the submission of the Workplace Skills plan (15% of total levies paid) and the second for the implementation of the Workplace Skills plan (45% of total levies paid), irrespective of amount spent on training. c)    No, there are two mandatory grants paid by the SETA to the employer. The first grant is paid for the submission of the Workplace Skills plan (25% of total levies paid) and the second for the implementation of the Workplace Skills plan (35% of total levies paid), irrespective of amount spent on training. d)   None of the above
52.	Is the SETA financial year the same as the tax year? a) No, the financial year for every SETA ends 31 March. Companies must submit a Workplace Skills plan for the period 1 April to 31 March. b)   Yes, the financial year for every SETA ends 28 February. Companies must submit a Workplace Skills plan for the period 1 March to 28 February.