Question
The area of legal psychology includes child custody evaluations and adult criminal responsibility assessments.
True
False
Question 2.
Which of the following is NOT an example of an individual intellectual assessment instrument?
Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
Wide Range Intelligence Test
All of the above are individually administered tests
Question 3.
Broad certification in forensic psychology is a state requirement to practice forensic psychology.
True
False
Question 4.
Which of the following focuses on the importance of the general acceptance of an expert's testimony, emphasizing its relevance?
The Warren Standard
The Federal Rules of Evidence
The Frye Test
The Daubert Rule
The Kumbo Tire Ruling
Question 5.
Competency to stand trial is one of the most common forensic assessments conducted by a forensic psychologist.
True
False
Question 6.
Given a narrow definition of forensic psychology, which of the following would NOT be considered a part of forensic psychology?
assessment of competency
expert testimony on rape trauma syndrome
expert testimony on eyewitness accuracy
evaluation for child custody determination
Question 7.
Dr. Lisa Kline has a Ph.D. in social psychology. She would most likely work
in a private practice treating clients
in a group practice conducting anger management groups
in a university teaching and conducting research
in a state agency managing a case load of battered women seeking assistance
Question 8.
"Jolly Jake" Cooper was arrested for attempting to widen a county road. At the time of his arrest he reported that he planned to build a "mega mall" and needed more street access. He hoped to complete the mall in a week, though he had no workers or financial resources. He is currently being held in jail. His defense attorney should recommend a
change of venue
use of a trial consultant
competency to stand trial evaluation
a plea of guilty
Question 9.
Which subfield is NOT one of the four applied areas of psychology recognized by the APA?
clinical
counseling
industrial/organizational
school
all four are recognized as applied areas
Question 10.
The average time of full study from the bachelor's degree to the doctoral degree is
4 years
nearly 7 years
approximately 2 years
10 years
Question 11.
The major distinction between counseling psychology and clinical psychology is
focus, clinical psychologists are trained to treat the more severe mental disorders
training, clinical psychologists receive the Psy.D.
breadth, clinical psychologists work in a larger variety of settings
licensure, clinical psychologists must get licensed and counseling psychologists do not
Question 12.
Which ruling suggests that a trial judge's decision can be overturned regarding the admissibility of expert testimony only if there is a clear abuse of discretion?
Kumbo Tire Co. v. Carmichael (1999)
Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals (1993)
General Electric Co. v. Joiner (1997)
Federal Rules of Evidence (1975)
Question 13.
Legal sufficiency is the term used to describe if the information presented by an expert witness is likely to assist the trier of fact.
True
False
Question 14.
In a trial, the trier of fact is
the judge
the expert witness
the jury
all of the above
A and/or C
Question 15.
The goal of the APA's Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Divorce Proceedings is
to ensure that only licensed psychologists are involved in child custody decisions
to mandate the proper procedure for conducting child custody evaluations
to develop a uniform model and thus enhance quality of child custody evaluations
to promote proficiency in using psychological expertise in child custody evaluations
all of the above are goals for the Guidelines
Question 16.
The American Psychological Association has established the Ethical Principles and Code of Conduct. Regarding these Principles,
membership in APA requires adherence to the Principles
some state laws require adherence to the Principles
the Principles can conflict with state laws
all of the above are true
Question 17.
The American Psychological Association has established Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Divorce Proceedings.
these Guidelines are mandatory for APA members
these Guidelines are exhaustive in regard to custody evaluations
these Guidelines are considered aspirational, neither mandatory or exhaustive
none of the above
Question 18.
Research on the influence of the expert witness's testimony on the jury suggest
testimony on the ultimate issue does not overwhelm the jury
the expert's opinion on the ultimate issue unduly influences the jury's decision
the expert's testimony on the penultimate issue unduly influences the jury's decision.
both B and C are
Question 19.
Which of the following is NOT one of the points in time when a psychologist may be asked to evaluate a law enforcement officer?
candidate selection
annually when working undercover
upon re-assignment to a new partner
when being consider for a promotion
Question 20.
Which ruling extended the Daubert decision to non-scientific expert witnesses?
General Electric Co. V. Joiner
The Frye Test
Federal Rules of Evidence
Kumbo Tire Co. Ltd. v. Carmichael
Question 21.
The Court ruled that expert testimony should have three critical elements. These three are
reliability, validity and norms
relevancy, legal sufficiency, and reliability
clear and convincing, preponderance, and beyond a reasonable doubt
falsifiability, a priori, and tenacity
Question 22.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four standards of reliability?
general acceptance in the scientific community
subjected to peer review
error rate of the technique
demonstrated high inter rater reliability (r > .80)
Question 23.
Test reliability is also an indication of
the test measures what it is supposed to measure
test consistency
tests can be counted on to be available in the literature
tests being used in a standardized manner
Question 24.
Based on the normal distribution, approximately what percentage of people will score within one standard deviation of the mean on the typical IQ test?
68%
95%
34%
2%
Question 25.
Using the SAT to predict college performance is an example of
predictive validity
construct validity
content validity
criterion-related validity
Question 26.
Which correlation coefficient is strongest?
-.7
-.4
.6
0.1
Question 27.
Two teachers are asked to rate a child on a behavioral problem checklist. We would want to know what the ____________ of the checklist is.
test-retest
internal consistency
inter-rate reliability
parallel forms reliability
Question 28.
Several differences between a clinical assessment and a forensic assessment are presented in the text. Which of the following is NOT one of the differences?
temporal focus of the assessment
motivation of the examinee
qualifications of the examiner
all of the above were identified as differences
Question 29.
Face validity, not actually a measurement concept, refers to the degree to which an instrument appears to measure what it purports to measure.
True
False
Question 30.
When a test is used for assessment at time 1 and again at time 2, it is necessary to develop what form of reliability?
test-retest
internal consistency
inter-rate reliability
parallel forms reliability
Question 31.
A measure of Axis II categories, or personality disorders, is the
MMPI-A
MCMI
16 PF
Wechsler Memory Scale
Question 32.
A test can be
reliable but not valid
valid but not reliable
if it is not valid, it cannot be reliable
if it is reliable, then it must be valid
Question 33.
Which of the following is NOT an area of forensic assessment?
selection of law enforcement officers
competency to stand trial evaluation
evaluation of a 5th grade child for a learning disability
assessment of an elderly adult for civil commitment
Question 34.
Which of the following is NOT an example of an affirmative defense
the insanity plea
self-defense
the battered-woman syndrome
all of the above are examples of an affirmative defense
Question 35.
It is generally not necessary to obtain an informed consent for a court-ordered criminal responsibility evaluation.
True
False
Question 36.
The ruling that defendants may only be held for a reasonable amount of time if they can be brought to competence was
Dusky v. United States, 1960
Jackson v. Indiana, 1972
Godinez v. Moran, 1993
Insanity Defense Reform Act, 1984
Question 37.
Mens rea refers to
a guilty mind
guilt beyond a reasonable doubt
being guilty but mentally ill
use of an affirmative defense
Question 38.
The ruling that the same standard of competency applies to all forms of competency (i.e. competency to stand trial, competency to waive counsel, etc.) was
Dusky v. United States, 1960
Jackson v. Indiana, 1972
Godinez v. Moran, 1993
Insanity Defense Reform Act, 1984
Question 39.
Which of the following is NOT generally an example of forensic assessment in a civil case?
child custody evaluations
workmen's compensation
personal injury evaluations
assessment of allegations of child sexual abuse
Question 40.
The Insanity Defense Reform Act was the result of what historical event?
The assassination of President Kennedy
The assassination attempt of President Clinton
The assassination attempt of President Reagan
None of the above
Question 41.
Who is responsible for making the ultimate decision regarding a defendant's competency to stand trial?
the jury
the forensic psychologist or psychiatrist
the judge
the prosecution
Question 42.
Approximately what percentage of cases is successful using the insanity defense?
75%
less than 3%
25%
38%
Question 43.
MSO refers to
the defendant's mental state during the evaluation
the defendant's mental state at the time of the offense
the prosecution's claim of the defendant's mental state at the time of the offense
"modus stasis operandi' or the behavior of the defendant at the time of the offense
Question 44.
The Insanity Defense Reform Act
prohibits expert witnesses from testifying on the ultimate issue
requires expert witnesses to testify regarding the ultimate issue
allows judges to determine the ultimate issue
prohibits defendants from testifying regarding the ultimate issue
Question 45.
Which of the following is NOT one of the differences discussed in the text between clinical and forensic assessment?
motivation of the examinee
therapist-client privilege
written report
professional fees
Question 46.
According to the federal Rules of Evidence, can mental health experts testify regarding the ultimate issue in competency to stand trial evaluations?
no, they may only address penultimate issues
yes, are required in their testimony and reports to address the ultimate issue
yes, they can address the ultimate issue if they wish to
only if subpoenaed by the court to do so
Question 47.
The Stockholm syndrome refers to the role psychologists play in critical-incident debriefing.
True
False
Question 48.
The results of pre-employment screening would indicate that the candidate
is unfit to serve
is suitable, marginally unsuitable or unsuitable
should either be hired or not hired
has psychiatric diagnosis or not
Question 49.
Guidelines developed and adopted by the International Association of Chiefs of Police regarding pre-employment psychological testing include all of the following EXCEPT
objective psychological tests should be used
projective tests should not be used
research should exist to justify an instrument's use in pre-employment screening
all of the above are included in the Guidelines
Question 50.
A FFDE can result in all of the following EXCEPT
fit for duty
permanently unfit for duty with mandatory treatment
temporarily unfit for duty with mandatory treatment
fit for duty with mandatory treatment
all of the above are possible
Question 51.
Which of the following is NOT an example of an affirmative defense?
insanity plea
extreme emotional duress
voluntary intoxication
self-defense
Question 52.
Which of the following is an example of health and wellness counseling provided by a police psychologist?
stress management
smoking cessation
relaxation training
all of the above
Question 53.
The majority of pre-employment selection instruments for law enforcement have demonstrated both concurrent and predictive validity.
True
False
Question 54.
Police psychologists have trained peer counselors to work with law enforcement personnel. What is NOT one of the advantages presented in the text to using peer counselors?
police feel a closer bond to other police officers
individuals tend to seek help sooner
there are fewer ethical problems with confidentiality issues
peer counselors can refer difficult cases to the psychologist
Question 55.
The courts have ruled that a police officer ordered to undergo a fitness-for-duty-evaluation may have legal counsel or a representative from the union present during the evaluation.
True
False
Question 56.
Dr. Weston works as a police psychologist in a large urban area. He is asked to complete a Fitness for Duty Evaluation on a 10 year veteran. He should
inform the veteran he can not provide any of the results of the evaluation
ask the veteran if he wishes to have union representative present during the evaluation
inform the referring agency that the results will be provided to the veteran, the union and his legal counsel
B and C
Question 57.
Recent surveys on job satisfaction among police psychologists indicate
a great deal of turnover due to low salaries
a great deal of turnover due to non-acceptance by the rank-and-file police officers
very high levels of job satisfaction
no surveys on job satisfaction were discussed in the text
Question 58.
Which of the following criteria is NOT part of the admissibility of expert testimony according to the Daubert decision?
the principles and methodology underlying the testimony can be tested
the principles and methodology underlying the testimony has been published
the principles and methodology underlying the testimony is available as a commercial product and can be purchased and utilized by other professionals
all of the above are part of Daubert
none of the above, Daubert extended the Frye Test
Question 59.
What is NOT one of the reasons presented in the text for deinstitutionalization of the mentally ill?
lack of federal funds to build larger state psychiatric hospitals
initiation of psychotropic medications to help control major symptoms of severe mental illness
community mental heath movement of the 1960's
all of the above were presented as reasons for deinstitutionalization
Question 60.
The goal of incapacitation for incarcerating offenders means
the criminal justice system is frequently incapacitated in preventing recidivism
the offender in physically incapacitated from re-offending due to his phsical confinement
the threat of incarceration incapacitates potential offenders
a persona receives punishment equal to the crime
Question 61.
Murder and rape are two crimes with very high recidivism rates.
True
False
Question 62.
The U. S. Supreme Court case of Ford v. Wainwright (1986) ruled
that it is unconstitutional to execute a mentally ill individual who does not appreciate what was happening
that prison inmates have a constitutional right to receive medical treatment
that an administrative hearing is sufficient to administer psychoactive drugs to an inmate against their will
that prison authorities can withdraw privileges if an inmate refuses to participate in psychological treatment
Question 63.
An example of restorative justice discussed in the text is a program that provides treatment for the youthful offender, family, and system. This program is named
Families Against Criminal Treatment (FACT)
The Multisystemic Therapy
Right Back to the Community
Holistic Community Treatment
Question 64.
Which crime has the highest rate of recidivism?
murder
rape
grand theft auto
kidnapping
Question 65.
In what settings can the criminal justice system impose forced psychological treatment?
on an inpatient setting to achieve competency to stand trial
on an inpatient setting after an administrative hearing
on an outpatient setting as part of probation or parole
the criminal justice system cannot force psychological treatment, patient's rights include the right to refuse treatment
A, B and C are
Question 66.
Regarding privileged communication between an inmate and his therapist: what can a therapist legally disclose to the authorities?
plans to commit a crime while in prison
disclosure of child abuse
possession of contraband
all of the above
Question 67.
The Department of Justice estimates ________ of incarcerated inmates are mentally ill.
less than 5%
nearly 85%
15% to 20%
the Department of Justice refuses to release this information stating that it violates the privacy rights of inmates
Question 68.
Specific deterrence is the belief that the broad threat of punishment for all individuals keeps most people on the good side of the law.
True
False
Question 69.
The U. S. Supreme Court case of Washington v. Harper (1990) ruled
that it is unconstitutional to execute a mentally ill individual who does not appreciate what was happening
that prison inmates have a constitutional right to receive medical treatment
that an administrative hearing is sufficient to administer psychoactive drugs to an inmate against their will
that prison authorities can withdraw privileges if an inmate refuses to participate in psychological treatment
Question 70.
Which Supreme Court case ruled that a prison can use the less stringent administrative hearing as opposed to a judicial hearing to rule on the administration of psychoactive medications against an inmate's will.
McKune v. Lile (2002)
Washington v. Harper (1990)
Estelle v. Gamble (1976)
Ford v. Wainwright (1986)