The definition of

Question

1) The definition of "health" includes A) absence of illness.
B) physical fitness.
C) mental and social well-being. D) all of the above
2) In the early 1900s, the leading causes of death were A) accidents.
B) infectious diseases. C) chronic diseases. D) natural disasters.
3) In 1947, the ________ clarified that "health is the state of complete physical, mental and social well being, not just the absence of disease or infirmity."
A) U.S. Department of Health Services
B) International Health, Education, and Welfare Association C) World Health Organization
D) United Nations
4) Wellness is best defined as A) a static process.
B) a dynamic process.
C) one dimensional.
D) unrelated to one's environment.
5) Today's major health issues and leading causes of death are primarily influenced by A) the physical environment.
B) access to health care.
C) genetics and family history.
D) behavior and lifestyles.
6) The dimensions of physical health include all of the following except: A) activities of daily living.
B) ability to think clearly.
C) body shape and size.
D) sensory acuity.
7) Mortality statistics describe A) illness rates.
B) accident rates.
C) chronic disease rates. D) death rates.
8) Jill has many friends, is respected by her co-workers, and maintains a great relationship with her boyfriend. Her ability to interact with others is an example of this dimension of health.
A) social
B) intellectual C) emotional D) physical
9) Efficacy, trust, love, self-esteem, and self confidence are all part of which dimension of health? A) social
B) mental
C) physical D) emotional
10) Spiritual health could best be described as A) exclusive to religiosity.
B) optional for achieving wellness.
C) related to one's purpose in life.
D) finding fulfilling relationships.
11) Emotional health can best be described as
A) being able to be self-sufficient and self confident. B) being able to problem solve emotional problems. C) being able to express as well as control feelings. D) being able to adapt to various social situations.
12) Health promotion
A) involves social justice aimed at health care for all Americans.
B) refers to informational campaigns about health.
C) includes organizational and financial supports to promote health. D) focuses on curing illness and disease.
13) Behaviors that increase susceptibility to negative health outcomes are A) cues to action.
B) risk behaviors.
C) precipitating behavioral factors. D) reinforcing positive behaviors.
14) Taking positive action now to avoid becoming sick later is known as A) health intervention.
B) prevention.
C) tertiary care.
D) attitude adjustment.
15) Recognition of tobacco as a health hazard is
A) not yet established by science.
B) only true for people who smoke.
C) one of the ten greatest public health achievements of the twentieth century. D) only important for young people.
16) Clean, safe water and improved sanitation have contributed to A) control of infectious disease.
B) better governmental social control.
C) better studies of the population's drinking habits.
D) cancer causing microorganisms.
17) The number of new cases of an illness each year is referred to as A) prevalence.
B) incidence. C) mortality. D) morbidity.
18) The usual number of cases of an illness occurring in a country would be reported as the A) prevalence.
B) incidence. C) mortality. D) morbidity.
19) The first leading cause of death for young adults (ages 15-24) in the United States is A) unintentional injuries.
B) homicide.
C) suicide.
D) cancer.
20) The leading cause of death for Americans is A) accidents.
B) cancer.
C) heart disease. D) suicide.
21) Factors that may add "life to your years" include A) controlling stress.
B) viewing mistakes as an opportunity to grow.
C) maintaining relationships with family and friends. D) all of the above
22) Life experiences, knowledge, family background, beliefs, and values are examples of A) enabling factors.
B) reinforcing factors. C) motivational factors. D) predisposing factors.
23) Leisa grew up in a physically active family. Now that Leisa lives on her own, they continually check on her to see if she is exercising and praise her for joining a fitness club. This is an example of
A) a predisposing factor. B) a confirming factor. C) a reinforcing factor. D) an enabling factor.
24) A high membership cost at a local gym might serve as a A) primary motivator.
B) positive enabler.
C) secondary motivator. D) negative enabler.
25) A good example of an enabling factor is
A) living near a walking path when you want to begin a walking program. B) nagging your parents because they smoke.
C) encouraging your spouse to go to the fitness club with you.
D) having friends who exercise.
26) Actions that increase susceptibility to negative health outcomes are A) health promotion activities.
B) disease prevention activities.
C) exposure factors.
D) risk behaviors.
27) An adolescent smoker might think lung cancer only happens to old people. This is an example of which construct of the Health Belief Model?
A) perceived seriousness B) perceived susceptibility C) cues to action
D) demographic variables
28) Observing a friend's successful attempts to quit smoking in order to help yourself quit smoking is an example of
A) conforming. B) shaping.
C) envy.
D) modeling.
29) When applying the strategy of shaping to behavior change, one should A) set very demanding goals for oneself.
B) only reward oneself when reaching the main goal.
C) use small achievable steps.
D) expect this strategy to provide immediate success.
30) All of the following would be good advice for changing a behavior except: A) Understand your behavior.
B) Make several major changes at the same time.
C) Build in support and reinforcement.
D) Plan for setbacks.
31) In order to change problem behaviors A) set realistic goals.
B) try to change all negative behaviors at the same time. C) have a counselor decide which behavior to work on. D) consider the possible negative outcomes.
E) it will cost money.
32) A strategy for overcoming the obstacle of stress could include A) seeking emotional support.
B) identifying sources of stress.
C) finding constructive ways to deal with stress.
D) all of the above
33) When setting realistic goals, consider
A) if the behavior change is attainable.
B) the potential outcomes.
C) services that may be of help in achieving the goal. D) all of the above
Lecture 2: Psychosocial Health
1) A term used to encompass mental, emotional, social, and spiritual dimensions of health is called A) socioemotional.
B) socio-holistic.
C) psychoenvironmental.
D) psychosocial.
2) All of the following are true of psychosocially healthy people except: A) They frequently experience guilt.
B) They are able to adapt to new demands of life.
C) They value human diversity.
D) They are comfortable when put in new social situations.
3) The thinking part of psychosocial health is termed A) mental health.
B) spiritual health. C) emotional health. D) social health.
4) Social bonds serve all of the following functions except: A) reassurance of one's worth.
B) mentoring.
C) feelings of belonging to a group.
D) all of the above are true
5) A negative evaluation of an entire group of people that is typically based on unfavorable and often wrong ideas about the group is called
A) subversion. B) prejudice. C) negativism. D) criticism.
6) Spirituality refers to
A) a sense of belonging to a scheme of being greater than purely physical dimensions of existence. B) oneness with nature.
C) a belief in a unifying force that gives meaning to life.
D) all of the above
7) Keisha puts herself down all the time. She is very negative about everything and doubts her ability to succeed. Keisha is displaying
A) exogenous behavior. B) low self-esteem.
C) poor self-management. D) clinical problems.
8) The ability to be fully present in the moment is referred to as ________. A) focused attention
B) present nature
C) mindfulness
D) interconnectedness
9) A person's belief about whether he or she can successfully engage in and execute a specific behavior is called
A) self-satisfaction. B) self-esteem.
C) self-reliance.
D) self-efficacy.
10) Even after the most negative of circumstances, individuals can teach themselves to find a place of positive development. Seligman refers to this principle as
A) learned helplessness. B) optimism.
C) learned optimism. D) joy.
11) All of the following are considered traits of a psychosocially healthy person except: A) agreeableness.
B) introversion.
C) conscientiousness. D) emotional stability.
12) One's sense of self respect or self worth is referred to as A) introversion.
B) assertiveness.
C) self esteem.
D) conscientiousness.
13) An example of a recommended method to avoid sleeplessness is to A) have a heavy physical workout before going to bed.
B) take Tylenol PM or a sedative.
C) have a regular sleep schedule.
D) make up all lost sleep on weekends.
14) If unable to sleep after 30 minutes in bed
A) get up and do some physical exercise.
B) eat a small snack.
C) get up and do something relaxing like reading. D) take a shower and get dressed for morning.
15) This substance or behavior can interfere with the normal sleep-wake cycle and can cause early morning waking:
A) caffeine. B) alcohol. C) chocolate. D) exercise. E) a snack.
16) Laughter has been shown to do all of the following except: A) reduce depression in stressed out people.
B) be a coping mechanism.
C) decrease social cohesion.
D) have a positive psychological effect.
17) The most common psychiatric problem in the United States is/are A) major depression.
B) anxiety.
C) eating disorders. D) obesity.
18) All of the following are part of a complete clinical examination for depression except: A) physical examination.
B) psychiatric history.
C) mental status examination.
D) academic history.
19) The facts about major depressive disorder include:
A) Depression is a natural response to crisis and loss.
B) People can snap out of it if they chose.
C) Only in-depth family social support can cure long term clinical depression. D) Symptoms include extreme and persistent sadness, despair and hopelessness.
20) A disorder characterized by fluctuating periods of mania and depression is A) manic anxiety disorder.
B) manic depressive disorder.
C) bipolar disorder.
D) none of the above
21) Sudden attacks of disabling terror are referred to as A) nervousness.
B) manic depression. C) panic attacks.
D) stress reaction.
22) Victims of a panic attack can have symptoms that mimic a(n) A) epileptic seizure.
B) depression.
C) migraine headache. D) heart attack.
23) Celia spends a good deal of her time worrying, is easily fatigued and often has difficulty concentrating. Her symptoms may characterize
A) depression.
B) generalized anxiety disorder. C) panic disorder.
D) bipolar disorder.
24) A deep and persistent unreasonable fear of a specific object, activity, or situation is called A) anxiety.
B) compulsion. C) a phobia. D) hysteria.
25) Someone with a social phobia would fear A) high places.
B) public gatherings. C) driving at night.
D) snakes and spiders.
26) Seasonal affective disorder is associated with A) malfunction of thyroid gland.
B) lack of social interaction.
C) too many external stimuli.
D) reduced exposure to natural sunlight.
27) Warning signs of suicide include all of the following except: A) a change in behavior.
B) expressions of self hatred.
C) giving away prized possessions.
D) a change in sleep patterns. E) an unchanged personality.
28) Which of the following statements about suicide is true?
A) It is the leading cause of death for people ages 15 to 24.
B) College students are more likely to commit suicide than the general population. C) Women attempt suicide more often than men.
D) Elderly make up over 50 percent of those who commit suicide.
E) Teens use the most violent means of suicide.
29) Suicide prevention techniques include:
A) Ignore threats; most of the time the person doesn't really mean it. B) Ask directly if the person intends to hurt him/herself.
C) Tell your suicidal friend that he/she doesn't mean it.
D) Keep your discussions with your suicidal friend confidential.
30) The mental health professional that can prescribe medications is a A) clinical psychologist.
B) psychiatrist.
C) social worker.
D) school counselor.
Lecture 3: Managing Stress
1) Mental and physical responses to change are termed A) stress.
B) trauma.
C) frightening. D) reactivity.
2) A level of functioning in which systems operate smoothly and maintain equilibrium is termed A) general adaptation syndrome.
B) homeostasis.
C) strain.
D) distress.
3) A real or perceived situation which causes the body to adjust is referred to as A) stress.
B) stressor. C) strain. D) eustress.
4) Attempting to return to normal or homeostasis after a crisis is termed A) challenge.
B) adaptive response. C) intensity factor. D) overload.
5) Positive stress that presents the opportunity for personal growth and satisfaction is called A) distress.
B) eustrain. C) eustress. D) reactivity.
6) Peter was in a relationship that recently ended when he found out his partner was cheating on him. This probably caused
A) eustress.
B) exhaustion.
C) distress.
D) all of the above
7) The following is true about stress:
A) Stress is only produced by externally imposed factors.
B) Stress produces a physical response of our bodies to the changes and challenges of life. C) We can usually eliminate all stressors in our lives if we try hard enough.
D) Stress does not affect our general health condition.
8) The term describing what happens when we perceive danger is called A) homeostasis.
B) fight or flight response. C) adaptation manifestation. D) the resistance phase.
9) Hearing unknown footsteps following you on campus would likely trigger the ________ phase of GAS.
A) defensive B) exhaustion C) recovery D) alarm
10) Which functions are associated with the sympathetic nervous system? A) decreases heart rate and breathing
B) increases heart rate and breathing
C) counters the release of stress hormones
D) both A and C
11) The stress hormone cortisol has a major role in the following, during the stress response: A) increasing heart rate.
B) decreasing appetite.
C) mobilizing nutrients in the blood. D) relieving pain.
12) All of the following are true about epinephrine except: A) It is secreted by the adrenal gland.
B) It is also known as adrenaline.
C) It prepares the body for action.
D) Its release is stimulated by the pituitary gland.
13) Stress has a strong connection to which of the following medical conditions? A) impaired immune function
B) heart disease
C) diabetes
D) all of the above
14) The primary hormone responsible for physiological stress responses such as increased heart rate is A) insulin.
B) cortisol.
C) thyroxin.
D) epinephrine.
15) Being a full-time student, having a job, being the president of a sorority, in addition to family responsibilities would best be described as
A) hassles. B) ambiguity. C) overload. D) conflict.
16) Which of the following categories of stressors may have the greatest impact on illness and disease? A) change
B) hassles
C) pressure
D) major life events
17) Pressures refer to a type of stressor
A) most students will not experience until after they graduate. B) that may be related to internal and external sources.
C) that is only a negative force.
D) that is nothing more than continued hassles.
18) The following is the best example of conflict:
A) worrying about a tough test.
B) wanting to go to a party but needing to study. C) too many responsibilities.
D) experiencing illness due to stress.
19) Excessive time pressure, excessive responsibility, lack of support, or excessive expectations of yourself are best described as
A) overload. B) conflict. C) discord. D) eustress.
20) All of the following are likely to influence your response to stress except: A) past experiences.
B) self-esteem level.
C) your friend's level of stress. D) general health status.
21) A person who is psychologically hardy
A) is definitely a Type B personality.
B) displays little control over situations.
C) accepts responsibility for their behavior. D) both A and B
E) all of the above
22) People with higher levels of stress report ________ than people with lower levels of stress. A) fewer cold types of symptoms
B) more upper respiratory illnesses
C) less joint pain
D) more hours of sleep
23) The following characteristics of a Type A personality have been determined to be the most detrimental to health:
A) time driven.
B) perfectionistic. C) competitive.
D) angry and hostile.
24) People who cope successfully with stressful situations A) believe in their own abilities.
B) have been successful in past similar situations. C) have an internal locus of control.
D) all of the above
25) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Stress management consists primarily of finding balance in our lives.
B) The goal of stress management is to eliminate all stress in our lives.
C) The goal of stress management is to take on as many new tasks as time will allow. D) The goal of stress management is to learn to react more to stress.
26) You finally decide to try to manage your stress. After assessing all the things in your life that are stressors, the next step would be to
A) eliminate your emotional responses.
B) learn to cope with the stressors.
C) determine which stressors can be reduced. D) take mental action to improve the stressors.
27) Trying to prepare ahead of time for potential stressors is termed A) stress inoculation.
B) downshifting.
C) seeing a counselor.
D) using alcohol as a constructive coping mechanism to relax.
28) Downshifting refers to the process of
A) taking a step back and simplifying one's life. B) using meditation to combat the stress response. C) slowing down the pace of one's activities.
D) becoming depressed as the result of stress.
29) Exercise reduces stress by
A) suppressing endocrine function.
B) increasing endorphins and reducing stress chemicals called cortisols. C) eliminating acute pain.
D) improving anaerobic power.
30) Which of the following is a time management tip to reduce stress?
A) Let your mail pile up and only look at it once a week.
B) Make a list of tasks, prioritize, and budget extra time to handle them.
C) Take a day off to relax even if you have assignments due immediately.
D) Don't bother cleaning up messes and clutter until you have time to do it right.
31) All of the following would be recommended as a spiritual method for managing stress except: A) interacting with the environment through physical activity.
B) keeping a journal to learn about your emotional responses.
C) being mindful of the importance of relationships in our lives.
D) using mind altering drugs to have a transcendental experience.
Lecture 4:Personal Fitness
1) The major health related components of physical fitness include A) cardiorespiratory fitness.
B) muscular strength and endurance.
C) body composition.
D) all of the above
2) _______ is defined as any bodily movement that is produced by the contraction of skeletal muscles and that substantially requires energy expenditure.
A) Exercise
B) Physical fitness C) Physical activity D) Endurance
3) A disease characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue is A) osteogenesis.
B) osteo arthritis. C) osteoporosis. D) osteomyelitis.
4) Regular aerobic activity improves the efficiency of the heart by A) thinning the blood.
B) strengthening the skeletal muscles.
C) decreasing the blood volume.
D) increasing the amount of blood pumped with each heartbeat.
5) Regular physical activity has been linked to all of the following except: A) lower incidence of diabetes.
B) lower incidence of hypertension.
C) lower life expectancies.
D) improved immunity to disease.
6) The force exerted by blood against blood vessel walls, generated by the pumping action of the heart is A) hypertension.
B) blood pressure. C) hypotension. D) stroke volume.
7) Exercise can reduce levels of this "bad cholesterol." A) HDLs
B) LDLs
C) triglycerides D) essential lipids
8) The term aerobic capacity is used to describe
A) cardiorespiratory endurance during stress.
B) an increased workload during exercise.
C) the maximum volume of oxygen consumed by the muscles during exercise. D) continued exercise that utilizes oxygen as the workload is increased.
9) The target heart rate is defined as
A) the heart rate after 20 minutes of exercise.
B) a percentage of your maximum heart rate.
C) the threshold level of exercise at which one cannot talk and exercise comfortably. D) none of the above
10) Tasha is 20 years old and wants to find her 60 percent target heart rate. This calculation would equal A) 60 beats per minute
B) 200 beats per minute C) 160 beats per minute D) 120 beats per minute
11) Flexibility refers to
A) the measure of the range of motion, or the amount of movements possible, at a particular joint. B) techniques that gradually lengthen a muscle to an elongated position.
C) techniques that involve the skillful use of alternating muscle contractions and static stretching in
the same muscle. D) all of the above
12) Tai chi is described as
A) an increase in fat metabolism.
B) an exercise that originated in India about 5000 years ago.
C) combining stretching and movement against resistance, which is aided by devices such as
tension springs or heavy rubber bands.
D) an ancient Chinese form of exercise widely practiced in the West that promotes balance,
coordination and meditation.
13) The amount of force that a muscle is capable of exerting is referred to as A) muscular endurance.
B) muscular strength.
C) one repetition maximum. D) overload principle.
14) The principle of resistance training that suggests that muscles should be gradually required to do more than they are used to doing is
A) specificity. B) tension.
C) overload. D) duration.
15) Muscles that have become larger as a result of resistance training exercise have undergone A) hyperplasty.
B) hyperelevation.
C) hyperinflammation. D) hypertrophy.
16) Muscle action to produce force while contracting is referred to as A) eccentric.
B) concentric. C) isometric. D) isotonic.
17) The health related components of physical fitness include
A) agility, coordination, endurance, flexibility, and balance.
B) strength, endurance, flexibility, body composition, balance, coordination.
C) muscle strength and power, cardiorespiratory endurance, flexibility, body composition.
D) muscle strength and endurance, cardiorespiratory endurance, flexibility, body composition.
18) The following are components of physical fitness except: A) muscle strength.
B) agility.
C) cardiorespiratory endurance. D) body composition.
19) Muscular strength can be defined as
A) the amount of force that a muscle is capable of exerting.
B) the amount of weight that can be lifted or moved just once.
C) the muscle's ability to exert forces repeatedly without fatigue.
D) a program of exercises to improve strength and endurance in major muscle groups.
20) The best advice for a beginning exerciser is to
A) begin with activity at 70 to 80 percent of your maximum heart rate.
B) start at high intensity but low duration.
C) take a few days off after initial muscle soreness.
D) begin with lower intensity and duration and frequency and build gradually.
21) When exercising for cardiorespiratory fitness, you are at an appropriate intensity when you are A) not able to get your breath easily.
B) able to sing easily.
C) able to talk to someone easily.
D) feeling as if you will be sick to your stomach.
22) Training for endurance uses
A) continuous repetitions on weights until completely fatigued.
B) fast, heavy repetitions of free-weight barbells.
C) smaller weights but repeats an exercise more times than does training for strength. D) more weight or tension and is usually equipment intense.
23) Muscular endurance is best developed by increasing A) the amount of weight lifted.
B) the number of repetitions of a given weight. C) the speed of lifting a given weight.
D) the range of motion that used to lift weights.
24) Muscular strength is best developed by increasing A) the amount of weight lifted.
B) the number of repetitions of a given weight. C) the speed lifting a given weight.
D) the variety of methods to lift weights.
25) The "C" in the acronym RICE for injury treatment stands for A) caution.
B) compression. C) consistent. D) constriction.
26) If a person working in his yard on a very hot summer day, begins to experience nausea, headache, dizziness, faintness, and the chills, he could be suffering from
A) heat cramps.
B) heat exhaustion. C) heat stroke.
D) heat fatigue.
27) A potentially fatal condition resulting from abnormally low body core temperature is called A) hypothermia.
B) hyperthermia.
C) temperature deprivation. D) thermal atrophy.
Lecture 5: Nutrition
1) Appetite can be described as
A) the feeling associated with the physiological need to eat. B) the desire to eat.
C) a learned psychological desire to consumer certain foods. D) selecting foods that are familiar.
2) Eating behaviors can be affected by
A) personal preferences.
B) ethnic heritage or traditions.
C) the nutritional values of food choices. D) all of the above
3) Calories are
A) one of the three basic nutrient groups.
B) essential elements and minerals that are found in the foods we eat.
C) a group of nutrients in our food sources.
D) units of measure which indicate the amount of energy we obtain from a particular food.
4) The new MyPyramid Plan emphasizes A) personalization.
B) gradual improvement.
C) physical activity.
D) all of the above
5) According to the MyPyramid Plan, ________ is symbolized by the varying width of each color band. A) variety
B) gradual steps C) proportionality D) personalization
6) A(n) ________ is the amount of a food you choose to eat at any one time. A) serving
B) portion C) nutrient D) intake
7) ________ calories are those obtained from food that do not provide a significant course of nutritional value.
A) Discretionary B) Hollow
C) Organic
D) Nutrient dense
8) All of the following are true about the new dietary guidelines except: A) Weight should increase with age.
B) Limit hydrogenated polyunsaturated fats.
C) Sugar and salt should be used sparingly.
D) Use alcohol in moderation.
9) To obtain all necessary nutrients
A) eat a variety of foods.
B) take supplements.
C) limit intake of empty calorie foods. D) be sure to drink water.
10) Comparing the following foods, the one that is nutrient dense is A) a glass of whole milk.
B) a glass of low fat milk.
C) a bowl of ice cream.
D) a stick of butter.
11) An individual's body weight is about ________ percent water. A) 20-30
B) 30-40 C) 40-50 D) 50-60
12) The basic units of a protein molecule are A) calcium.
B) starch.
C) amino acids. D) lipids.
13) Fiber or cellulose is A) indigestible.
B) adding bulk to the diet.
C) the covering of fruits and vegetables. D) all of the above
14) Examples of foods that would be considered complete proteins include A) an egg.
B) beans and rice.
C) 4 oz of lean hamburger. D) all of the above
15) The most common form of simple sugar is A) maltose.
B) fructose. C) glucose. D) sucrose.
16) The disaccharide (sugar) contained in milk is A) lactose.
B) glucose. C) sucrose. D) fructose.
17) Carbohydrate that is stored in muscles and the liver is A) glucagon.
B) galactose. C) glucose. D) glycogen.
18) An attempt by endurance athletes to increase the stores of glycogen in the body is a process known as A) glyco-enhancing.
B) carbohydrate reusing.
C) carbohydrate loading.
D) learned carbohydrate recall.
19) ________ fiber appears to be a factor in lowering blood cholesterol levels. A) Soluble
B) Complex C) Insoluble D) Composite
20) High levels of this type of cholesterol appear to reduce the risk of atherosclerosis. A) LDL
B) HDL C) VLDL D) ADL
21) The ideal cholesterol ratio for an individual would include A) high HDLs and high LDLs.
B) low HDLs and low LDLs.
C) low HDLs and high LDLs.
D) high HDLs and low LDLs.
22) The purpose of hydrogenating unsaturated fats is to A) make them more liquid at room temperature. B) reduce the amount of cholesterol.
C) make them more solid at room temperature. D) increase the levels of protein.
23) When polyunsaturated oils are hydrogenated, A) monounsaturated fats are produced.
B) trans-fatty acids are produced.
C) HDLs are produced.
D) HDLs are destroyed.
24) Taking a large amount of these vitamins can be toxic because it accumulates in the liver. A) A, D, E
B) B6 C) C D) B12
25) Calcium is an example of a ________ mineral. A) main
B) micromineral C) trace
D) macromineral
26) The minerals necessary for the regulation of blood and body fluids are A) zinc and magnesium.
B) sodium and potassium.
C) iodine and iron.
D) calcium and phosphorous.
27) The most common nutrient deficiency in the world is A) iron deficiency anemia.
B) ketonuria.
C) pernicious anemia.
D) gout.
28) This mineral's chief function in the body is to make teeth resistant to decay and bones resistant to mineral loss.
A) calcium
B) fluoride
C) magnesium D) phosphorous
29) Tomatoes are rich in A) beta-carotene.
B) vitamin C. C) vitamin E. D) lycopene.
30) ________ produce enzymes that destroy free radicals. A) Hormones
B) Enzymes
C) Proteins
D) Antioxidants
31) Folate is one of the ________ vitamins. A) C
B) D C) B D) E
32) A vegetarian who consumes dairy products, but no other animal products is termed a A) vegan.
B) pesco-vegetarian. C) semi-vegetarian. D) lacto-vegetarian.
33) A vegetarian who eats dairy products and eggs is termed a A) pesco-vegetarian.
B) lacto-vegetarian.
C) lacto-ovo vegetarian. D) semi-vegetarian.
34) Cooked leftovers can be left out ________ on the table after dinner and still avoid contamination. A) no more than 2 hours
B) no more than 1 hour
C) up to 3 hours
D) no more than 30 minutes
35) The safest way to thaw frozen foods is
A) to thaw in warm water.
B) in the refrigerator and never thaw them at room temperature. C) to thaw in oven at low heat.
D) to remove from the freezer and put on kitchen counter.
36) The inability to digest milk sugar is termed A) lactose resistance.
B) lactose poisoning. C) lactose deficiency. D) lactose intolerance.
Lecture 6: Managing Your Weight
1) The current percentage of Americans who are overweight or obese is A) less than 12 percent.
B) at least 90 percent.
C) over 60 percent.
D) less than 25 percent.
2) Obesity is a risk factor for
A) heart disease and stroke. B) premature death.
C) diabetes.
D) all of the above
3) When trying to determine your ideal weight, the following factor is the least important to take into consideration:
A) body structure
B) how you compare to your friends C) ratio of fat to lean tissue
D) how your weight is distributed
4) ________ is defined as an excessively high amount of adipose tissue in relation to lean body mass, or a BMI of 30 or more.
A) Overweight B) Obesity
C) Malnourished D) Adiposity
5) Body mass index is
A) a measure of body composition.
B) a relationship of your weight to your height. C) a relationship of your hip to waist ratio.
D) less than 25 percent.
6) According to the text, a 20-year-old female with 20 percent body fat would be categorized as A) athletic.
B) normal.
C) mildly obese. D) morbidly obese.
7) Problems with the BMI measurement include
A) over estimating athletically muscular people. B) underestimating elderly people.
C) the high cost of testing.
D) both A and B
8) Essential body fat should account for ________ percent of a man's body weight. A) 4
B) 10 C) 8 D) 15
9) Research has determined that there are health risks associated with how fat is distributed in the body. From a health standpoint, the most risky distribution of body fat is having more fat
A) in the hips and thighs. B) in the abdominal area. C) above the waist.
D) in the buttocks.
10) The population has become increasingly sedentary because
A) people use more automated equipment at home and work. B) people have more free time that in the past.
C) physical education is required in schools.
D) both A and B
11) The amount of energy the body uses at complete rest is A) resting metabolic rate.
B) basal metabolic rate.
C) metabolic balance.
D) caloric restriction.
12) The setpoint theory suggests that
A) people are socialized to eat until they feel comfortable.
B) a person's body has a weight at which it is programmed to be comfortable. C) most people have an ideal setpoint on the scale that they would like to weigh. D) if you increase satiety, you can increase your metabolic rate.
13) Psychosocial factors that contribute to obesity include
A) patterns learned during childhood.
B) using food as a source of comfort.
C) a social emphasis on food for celebration and enjoyment. D) all of the above
14) An emerging problem seen in young men and women whose desire to look good has a destructive or disabling effect on one's ability to function is
A) anorexia.
B) bulimia.
C) social physique anxiety. D) disordered eating.
15) Metabolic rate is higher A) when you are at rest.
B) during periods of growth and development like adolescence and pregnancy. C) as you get older.
D) both A and C
16) For an average sedentary person, ________ percent of total caloric needs are burned to maintain at rest.
A) 35-40
B) 45-55
C) 60-70
D) 75-80
17) Yo-yo dieting with extreme fluctuations in weight is not recommended because
A) this pattern tends to increase appetite making it harder to maintain weight loss. B) this pattern tends to lower metabolism making it harder to maintain weight loss. C) this pattern tends to decrease interest in sexual activity.
D) this pattern tends to be emotionally frustrating and expensive to replace clothes.
18) The success rate of maintaining weight loss is most improved with A) continued dieting.
B) increased protein.
C) decreased essential fat. D) exercise.
19) All of the following statements are a current goal of weight management programs except: A) De-emphasize food as a central focus.
B) Establish tolerable eating and exercise habits.
C) Encourage quick weight loss by eating special foods.
D) Be a wise food consumer.
20) The exercise metabolic rate (EMR) accounts for what percentage of daily calorie expenditures? A) 2 percent
B) 4 percent C) 6 percent D) 10 percent
21) The following are tips for sensible weight management except: A) Eliminate fat from the diet.
B) Think of it as a way of life.
C) Set realistic goals and be consistent.
D) Establish a plan and look for balance in what you do.
22) When fasting or eating a very low calorie diet (vlcd) for prolonged periods, the body will find fuel from its energy stores. One of the first reserves the body will use is from
A) subcutaneous fat.
B) fat stored in the liver.
C) lean protein tissue.
D) glycogen stores in the brain.
23) Problems associated with fasting include A) loss of lean body mass.
B) decreased BMR.
C) constipation.
D) all of the above
24) A woman who is 5 feet 7 inches and 103 pounds, thinks she's fat, and refuses to eat anything considered "fattening" most likely suffers from
A) anorexia nervosa.
B) bulimia nervosa.
C) fat phobia.
D) social physique anxiety.
25) An intense fear of gaining weight and using inappropriate measures, such as purging, to prevent weight gain following eating is known as
A) bulimia nervosa. B) anorexia nervosa. C) anxiety nervosa. D) psychosis nervosa.
26) The following statement is true of anorexics:
A) They usually weigh 5 percent under the norm.
B) They practice almost total exclusion of food from their diet and/or extreme exercise. C) Weight loss is perceived as an unacceptable failure.
D) They usually do not use any purging techniques.
27) The following is an example of bulimic behavior:
A) reduction in total food intake
B) control over bingeing behavior
C) compulsive overeating without excessive measures to lose weight D) secretive binge eating followed by purging
1) Social scientists believe that love may be of two kinds. They are passionate and ________. A) consummate
B) commensurate C) companionate D) compassionate
2) Relationships with family members, friends, and romantic partners are called A) intimate relationships.
B) behavioral interdependence.
C) emotional.
D) needy relationships.
3) Intimate relationships
A) can include sexual relationships.
B) may share emotional intimacy without being sexual. C) may be spiritually intimate.
D) all of the above
4) Through our relationships with others, we fulfill all of the following needs except: A) intimacy.
B) assistance. C) affirmation. D) actualization.
5) Genderlect refers to
A) emotional intimacy.
B) the speech pattern and communication style of males and females. C) spiritual intimacy.
D) friendship intimacy.
6) Sam and Kris have entered a relationship and seem very preoccupied with each other. They constantly want to be with or talk to each other, characterizing which dimension of passion and caring?
A) exclusiveness
B) fascination
C) sexual desire
D) being a champion
7) A state of high arousal filled with the ecstasy of being loved is called A) companionate love.
B) passionate love. C) intimate love. D) fascination love.
8) According to Robert Sternberg's Triangular Theory of Love, love involves the key components of A) intimacy.
B) passion.
C) decision/commitment. D) all of the above
9) Men tend to select their mates primarily based on
A) financially dependent and physically attractive. B) dependability and youth.
C) youth and financial independence.
D) youth and physical attractiveness.
10) There is an increasing number of single adults because A) some people never marry.
B) the divorce rate is increasing.
C) widows and widowers are opting to not remarry. D) all of the above
11) The following is true about sexual identity:
A) It is based solely on genetic factors.
B) It is the biological mother who determines sex. C) It is the biological father who determines sex. D) It begins at birth.
12) The sex chromosome characteristics of a boy are A) XX.
B) XY. C) YX. D) YY.
13) The reference to a person born with sex chromosomes, external genitalia, and/or an internal reproductive system that has both male and female components is termed a
A) transsexual.
B) transvestite.
C) intersexual.
D) androgynous individual.
14) The hormone(s) that stimulates the development of an egg each month for females is/are A) gonadotropins.
B) follicle stimulating hormone. C) oxytocin.
D) luteinizing hormone.
15) Which of the following best describes gender identity?
A) the practice of behaving in a masculine or feminine way
B) interactions that teach us ways to act
C) the manner in which we express maleness or femaleness on a daily basis D) our personal sense of awareness of being masculine or feminine
16) The true nature of menstrual flow is in fact deteriorating .... A) fertilized eggs.
B) endometrial lining. C) cervical mucous. D) corpus luteum.
17) The female sex organ whose only known function is sexual pleasure is the A) vulva.
B) mons pubis. C) clitoris.
D) cervix.
18) Being intolerant of gay, lesbian or bisexual people is termed A) homophobic.
B) homoeccentric. C) homoilliterate. D) celibate.
19) Avoiding any sexual activity is referred to as A) monogamy.
B) uni-sexuality. C) celibacy.
D) erotica.
20) The most commonly practiced form of sexual expression for couples is A) fellatio.
B) cunnilingus.
C) coitus.
D) anal intercourse.
Lecture 8: Birth Control, Pregnancy, and Childbirth
1) Fertility is
A) a sperm entering an ovum.
B) a person's ability to reproduce.
C) a method of preventing conception.
D) an infection acquired through sexual contact.
2) The typical use failure rate for a contraception method takes into account all of the following except: A) consistent and correct use.
B) human error.
C) incorrect use.
D) incomplete use.
3) An example of a barrier method of birth control is A) the cervical cap.
B) spermicides.
C) condom.
D) all of the above
4) Which one of the following is not true about condoms?
A) They are rarely used incorrectly.
B) They can be purchased with a spermicide.
C) They help prevent the spread of some sexually transmitted infections. D) They are reliable against pregnancy when used consistently.
5) When not being used, condoms should be stored A) in a cool place.
B) in a wallet or pocket.
C) at room temperature or above.
D) anywhere that will prevent them from being torn.
6) Besides incorrect use, what is another reason that condoms may not be effective? A) They do not have enough spermicide.
B) Most men buy the incorrect size.
C) They can break during intercourse when they haven't been properly stored. D) People lie about usage rates.
7) Which one of the following lubricants is safe to use with a condom? A) baby oil
B) hand lotion C) vaseline D) KY jelly
8) The female sterilization method achieved through a surgical procedure of cutting and cauterizing the fallopian tubes to seal them is called
A) fallopian cryotherapy. B) fallopian bypass.
C) tubal bypass.
D) tubal ligation.
9) Which of the following statements is true about female sterilization? A) Hysterectomy is the most popular method for all females.
B) A woman continues to menstruate after a tubal ligation.
C) Hysterectomy can be done on an outpatient basis.
D) In a tubal ligation, the fallopian tubes are removed.
10) Many men are reluctant to have a vasectomy because of A) the major surgery involved.
B) the financial cost.
C) the permanency of the procedure.
D) the fear of decreased sexual performance.
11) Fertility awareness methods include all of the following except: A) the calendar method.
B) the withdrawal method.
C) the cervical mucous method.
D) the basal body temperature method.
12) A rise in a women's body temperature signals A) ovulation has occurred.
B) the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
C) fertilization has occurred.
D) the end of the current menstrual phase of the cycle.
13) The most commonly used method of first-trimester abortion is A) dilation and evacuation.
B) vacuum aspiration.
C) dilation and curettage.
D) induction abortion.
14) Teratogenic effects are more likely during which phase of pregnancy? A) the first three months
B) the first month
C) the last three months
D) equal during all stages
15) A physician's advice about alcohol consumption during pregnancy is: A) Limit herself to one glass per day.
B) Limit herself to two glasses per day.
C) Abstain from alcohol during pregnancy.
D) An occasional glass of wine with dinner is fine.
16) The most common birth defect of babies born to mothers who drink alcohol while pregnant is A) alcohol birth syndrome.
B) subjective effect syndrome.
C) teratogen syndrome.
D) fetal alcohol syndrome.
17) The most common birth defect found in babies born to older mothers is A) blindness.
B) limb deformation.
C) Raynaud's syndrome. D) Down's syndrome.
18) An embryo is called a fetus
A) at the beginning of the first month of pregnancy. B) after seven weeks of pregnancy.
C) at the beginning of the third month of pregnancy. D) after ten weeks of pregnancy.
19) When a pregnant woman's "water breaks" what is actually happening is A) the placental barrier breaks.
B) the cervix dilates.
C) the baby enters the birth canal.
D) the amniotic sac breaks.
20) The loss of the fetus before it is viable (24 weeks gestation) is called A) miscarriage or spontaneous abortion.
B) sudden infant death.
C) spontaneous death.
D) spontaneous birth.
21) If a mother's Rh factor is negative and her first child's Rh factor is positive, her second child may be at risk for
A) hemolytic disease.
B) sickle cell anemia.
C) toxic anemia.
D) protein deficient anemia.
22) Implantation of a fertilized egg outside the uterus is called a(n) A) pelvic pregnancy.
B) hemolytic pregnancy. C) ectopic pregnancy. D) fallopian pregnancy.
23) Pregnant women are advised to avoid contact with cat litter boxes during pregnancy because of an increase risk of contracting
A) hepatitis.
B) rubella.
C) toxoplasmosis. D) feline distemper.
24) The following best describes the function of ultrasound during pregnancy: A) It determines the size and position of the fetus.
B) It can detect abnormal chromosomes.
C) It can determine blood type.
D) It determines the function of the metabolic system.
25) The following is true of breast fed infants:
A) They have higher incidences of sickness and illnesses.
B) They gain weight at a more rapid weight than bottle fed infants. C) They have a decreased incidence of sickness.
D) They never sleep through the night.
Lecture 9: Preventing Infectious Diseases
1) Microscopic organisms that are disease-causing agents are termed A) pathogens.
B) virulent.
C) multifactorial disease.
D) endoplasmic microorganisms.
2) All of the following behaviors will compromise the strength of your immune system except: A) not getting enough sleep.
B) eating junk food.
C) excessive alcohol consumption.
D) exercising regularly.
3) The length of time required for some viruses to develop fully and cause symptoms in their host is termed
A) interferon B) incubation. C) prodromal. D) malady.
4) The following is not a bacterial infection: A) tuberculosis
B) pneumonia
C) toxic shock syndrome D) influenza
5) All of the following are true about viruses except:
A) they are the smallest pathogens.
B) there are over 150 different viruses that cause disease. C) they can reproduce outside of cells.
D) drug treatment is limited.
6) The infection that is the number one cause of absenteeism from work is A) pneumonia.
B) a cold.
C) mononucleosis. D) hepatitis.
7) Which type of hepatitis is spread by eating food or drinking water contaminated with human excrement?
A) hepatitis A B) hepatitis B C) hepatitis C D) hepatitis D
8) An example of a self replicating protein based agent that systematically destroys brain cells is/are A) T lymphocytes.
B) killer T cells. C) enzymes.
D) prions.
9) Which type of hepatitis is spread via body fluids being shared through unprotected sex? A) hepatitis A
B) hepatitis B C) hepatitis C D) hepatitis D
10) Any substance capable of triggering an immune response is called an A) antibody.
B) antigen.
C) enzyme.
D) immunoglobulin.
11) The virus associated with cervical cancer is A) hepatitis A.
B) human papilloma virus. C) syphilis.
D) chlamydia.
12) The most commonly reported sexually transmitted infection in the USA & Japan is A) herpes simplex.
B) gonorrhea.
C) chlamydia.
D) pelvic inflammatory disease.
13) When the body overreacts to relatively harmless antigens by developing an overly elaborate protective mechanism, we call this response a(n)
A) antibody response.
B) allergic response.
C) hyperimmune response. D) histamine response.
14) The major risk factor for chronic bronchitis is A) previous allergies.
B) family history.
C) cigarette smoking. D) dust in the air.
1) The number one cause of death around the world is A) cancer.
B) stroke. C) CVD. D) AIDS.
2) The best defense against CVD is
A) to inherit good genes.
B) prevention.
C) to have adequate health insurance.
D) to establish yourself with an excellent physician.
3) The size of the human heart is about A) the size of a golf ball.
B) the size of your fist.
C) the size of a small peach.
D) the size of a grapefruit.
4) ________ carry blood away from the heart. A) Veins
B) Arteries
C) Venules
D) Pulmonary arteries
5) The upper chambers of the heart are called A) valves.
B) ventricles.
C) arteries and veins. D) atria.
6) The blood vessels that permit the exchange of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, and waste products with body cells are the
A) arterioles.
B) auxiliary arteries. C) capillaries.
D) venules.
7) An abnormally high lipid level results in the buildup of A) capillaries.
B) venules.
C) plaque.
D) all of the above
8) The average heart beats
A) 40-50 beats per minute. B) 50-60 beats per minute. C) 70-80 beats per minute. D) 90-100 beats per minute.
9) The medical term for the "thickening" of the arteries caused by fatty deposits, cholesterol, and other substances deposited in the blood vessels is
A) arrhythmia.
B) angina pectoris. C) myosclerosis. D) atherosclerosis.
10) The following statement is true with regard to the development of atherosclerosis: A) It is often referred to as coronary artery disease (CAD).
B) It is easily reversed with medication and exercise.
C) It usually occurs in the late 50s and 60s.
D) The most significant factor is gender.
11) A number of conditions including atherosclerosis can lead to ischemia which is A) a squeezing of heart tissue that leads to damage.
B) an inflammatory disease.
C) decrease in or blockage of blood flow.
D) reduced oxygen supply to the heart.
12) All of the following are methods of reducing risk for CVD except: A) not smoking.
B) reducing your intake of saturated fat and cholesterol. C) increase triglycerides in your blood.
D) increasing exercise.
13) Metabolic syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: A) abdominal weight gain
B) insulin resistance
C) elevated blood fat
D) reduced blood pressure
14) Rheumatic heart disease is attributed to a ________ infection. A) staphylococcal
B) streptococcal C) hepatitis
D) herpes
15) The common name for a cerebrovascular accident is A) heart attack.
B) stroke.
C) angina.
D) arrhythmia.
16) Traveling waste in the blood that eventually cuts off blood supply to the brain is A) a blood clot.
B) an embolus. C) an aneurysm. D) both A and B
17) The greatest controllable risk factor for heart disease is A) diet.
B) lack of physical activity. C) smoking.
D) obesity.
18) The best way to try to lower the LDL level of the blood before medications are prescribed is A) reduce the saturated fat in your diet.
B) engage in regular exercise.
C) increase dietary protein.
D) both A and B
19) Systolic pressure refers to
A) pressure in the vessels when the heart is relaxed.
B) pressure in the vessels when a person is exercising. C) pressure in the vessels when the heart is contracting. D) pressure in the vessels when a person is sleeping.
20) Blood pressure is usually defined as normal when a reading is below A) 120/80.
B) 130/85. C) 140/90. D) 150/95.
21) ________ are often found in fast foods and increase vulnerability to CVD. A) Trans fats
B) Saturated fats
C) Hydrogenated products D) all of the above
22) How fat is distributed on the body contributes to risk for heart disease. The shape that is considered a higher risk is a(n)
A) pear.
B) apple.
C) hour glass. D) bowling ball.
23) Cancer is a group of diseases characterized by
A) uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells. B) solid tumor development.
C) replication of genetic material.
D) predictable spreading of abnormal cells.
24) A benign tumor means that the tumor is A) cancerous.
B) spreading quickly. C) dormant.
D) non-cancerous.
25) A malignant tumor means that the tumor is A) cancerous.
B) spreading quickly. C) dormant.
D) non-cancerous.
26) A biopsy in a woman who has had breast cancer has shown that the cancer is now in her lymph nodes. The process of malignant cells moving throughout the body is called
A) metastasis.
B) transference.
C) transvergence.
D) directional malignance.
27) The following statement is true regarding radiation and cancer:
A) Non-ionizing radiation has been a proven cause of cancer.
B) Ionizing radiation is the only form of radiation proven to cause cancer.
C) Living near nuclear power plants has not been shown to increase the risk of cancer. D) Ultraviolet radiation has been deemed safe.
28) Cervical cancer has been linked to ________, the virus that causes genital warts. A) hepatitis B
B) AIDS
C) human papilloma virus D) chlamydia
29) Breast cancer is classified as a A) carcinoma.
B) lymphoma. C) melanoma. D) sarcoma.
30) The type of cancer that continues to be the leading cancer killer in both men and women is A) lung.
B) prostate. C) colon. D) bladder.
31) The most common type of cancer for males may be A) lung.
B) prostate.
C) colon and rectal. D) leukemia.
32) Which of the following is a risk factor for colorectal cancer? A) obesity
B) family history
C) low intake of fruits and vegetables D) all of the above
33) The most deadly form of skin cancer is called A) malignant melanoma.
B) malignant carcinoma.
C) squamous skin cell cancer.
D) myeloma.
34) The recommended screening for cervical cancer is the A) mammogram.
B) digital exam.
C) Pap test.
D) uterine analysis.
35) The following is true about Type 1 diabetes:
A) It can be cured by weight loss or dietary changes. B) It is less serious than Type 2 diabetes.
C) Type 1 diabetes occurs mostly later in life.
D) It is characterized by permanent insulin deficiency.
Lecture 11: Licit and Illicit Drugs
1) ________ involves the use of a drug for a purpose for which it was not intended. A) Abuse
B) Use
C) Misuse D) Tolerance
2) Taking an aspirin to relieve minor muscle aches is in the category of A) over-the-counter drug.
B) recreational drug.
C) herbal preparation.
D) prescription medication.
3) The fastest-acting method of injection is A) inunction.
B) intramuscular. C) intravenous. D) subcutaneous.
4) An acquired reaction to a drug in which the continued intake of the same dose has diminished effects is known as:
A) withdrawal. B) tolerance. C) adjustment. D) dosing.
5) To be addictive
A) a behavior must have the potential to produce a positive mood change.
B) the body eventually requires the chemical in order to feel normal.
C) continued involvement with a substance or activity occurs despite ongoing negative
consequences. D) both B and C
6) Jason doesn't see that his addiction to heroin is self-destructive. He is experiencing A) obsession.
B) compulsion. C) displacement. D) denial.
7) Drugs used to fight bacterial infections are A) sedatives.
B) antibiotics.
C) antidepressants. D) generics.
8) Central nervous system depressants include A) sedatives.
B) tranquilizers. C) antidepressants. D) both A and B
9) Generic drugs
A) are sold under their brand name.
B) are sold under their chemical name. C) may save the consumer some money. D) both B and C
10) Analgesics are
A) pain relievers.
B) the largest sales category of OTC drugs.
C) available as prescription drugs in higher dosages. D) all of the above
11) A diuretic
A) is used to soften the stool.
B) increases the excretion of urine from the body. C) is the interaction of two or more drugs.
D) is a stimulant.
12) ________ is an interaction of two or more drugs that often multiplies the effect of each individual drug.
A) Inhibition
B) Excitation
C) Synergism
D) Cross-tolerance
13) Polydrug use refers to
A) intolerance in which two or more drugs cause uncomfortable symptoms. B) cross-tolerance between two drugs.
C) antagonism between two drugs.
D) the use of multiple medications or illicit drugs simultaneously.
14) The following statement is true about amphetamines:
A) Amphetamine abusers become only psychologically addicted to the drug.
B) Amphetamine abusers can become extremely paranoid.
C) Amphetamines may cause a dangerous drop in heart rate and respiratory rate. D) Amphetamines truly have few side effects.
15) Marijuana is administered therapeutically to offset this potential side effect of chemotherapy: A) hair loss
B) severe nausea C) hypotension D) muscle pain
16) Morphine, codeine, and heroin have this in common. A) They cost about the same on the streets.
B) They are all opiates.
C) They are all amphetamines.
D) They are all available by prescription.
17) Hallucinogens are also known as A) opiates
B) stimulants C) analgesics D) psychedelics
18) Designer drugs are A) never addictive.
B) another name for hallucinogens.
C) underground chemists' version of psychoactive drugs. D) available over-the-counter.
19) These drugs are used by athletes to enhance strength: A) anabolic steroids
B) myogenic drugs C) ergogenic drugs D) both A and C
20) One of the highly publicized side effects of steroids is A) migraine headaches.
B) severe mood swings. C) aneurysm.
D) jaw structure changes.
Lecture 12: Alcohol, Tobacco and Caffiene
1) Binge drinking for a male is defined as
A) consuming ten drinks on a single occasion. B) consuming eight drinks on a single occasion. C) consuming five drinks on a single occasion. D) consuming four drinks on a single occasion.
2) Eating food when drinking alcohol
A) usually causes digestive problems. B) slows the absorption of the alcohol. C) slows the absorption of the nutrients. D) negates the effect of alcohol.
3) The main site of alcohol metabolism is the A) spleen.
B) liver. C) colon. D) kidney.
4) The intoxicating substance in beer, wine, and liquor is A) ethanol.
B) methanol.
C) phenol.
D) isopropyl alcohol.
5) Blood Alcohol Concentration is
A) the ratio of alcohol to total blood volume.
B) the ratio of alcohol to l liter of blood.
C) a measure of alcohol per pound of body weight. D) a measure of tissue saturation.
6) Rum and cola will be absorbed faster than a drink of rum and orange juice because
A) carbonation causes the pyloric valve to relax.
B) the oxygen in the carbonation speeds absorption.
C) an average rum and cola drink has more alcohol than a beer, thus speeding absorption. D) carbonation causes more alcohol to be absorbed in the lining of the mouth.
7) BAC depends on all of the following factors except: A) body weight
B) water content in body tissues
C) time of day alcohol is consumed D) amount of food in the stomach
8) Characteristics of alcohol poisoning include all of the following except: A) inability to be aroused.
B) a weak, rapid pulse.
C) a yellowing tint to the eyeballs.
D) unusual or irregular breathing patterns.
9) When women drink alcohol during pregnancy they can produce significant brain damage in the fetus called
A) fetal alcohol effects. B) alcoholic hepatitis.
C) fetal alcohol syndrome. D) teratogens.
10) Urinating frequently after alcohol consumption occurs because A) alcohol is a diuretic.
B) alcohol is like water in that it goes right through your system. C) alcohol shrinks the bladder.
D) alcohol can be a gastrointestinal irritant.
11) The final stage of liver damage from drinking is called A) cardiosis.
B) lipidosis.
C) cirrhosis.
D) liverostomy.
12) The process by which addicts end their dependence on a drug is referred to as A) intervention.
B) detoxification. C) confusion.
D) delirium.
13) The highest percentage of new smokers is ...
A) those with more than 12 years of education. B) those with 12 years of education.
C) those over the age of 64.
D) those in the teen years.
14) Marketing of tobacco products is currently targeted toward
A) ethnic and minority groups.
B) women, with "light" cigarettes, in an appeal to women's fear of gaining weight. C) men as a masculine, rugged and active group.
D) all of the above
15) Particulate matter from cigarettes condenses in the lungs to form a thick, brown sludge called A) nicotine.
B) benzopyrene. C) tar.
D) phenol.
16) The following statement about nicotine is true:
A) It is the only chemical present in cigarette smoke.
B) It is a form of condensed particulate matter from tobacco. C) It impairs the cilia from cleansing the lungs.
D) It irritates the lungs but does not accumulate in the lungs.
17) The most dangerous gas that is inhaled with each puff of a cigarette is A) phenol.
B) benzopyrene.
C) carbon dioxide. D) carbon monoxide.
18) The following is the effect that carbon monoxide has on the body:
A) Body heat causes it to be absorbed into the lungs.
B) It diminishes the oxygen-carrying capacity of the circulatory system. C) It irritates the mouth and throat when inhaled.
D) It diminishes hormone production.
19) Lung cancer currently ranks number ________ among cancer deaths. A) 1
B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
20) Nicotine
A) is a central nervous system depressant.
B) stimulates the heart and increases respiration. C) increases hunger signals.
D) is not easy to develop a tolerance to.
21) The following is true about sidestream smoke:
A) The greatest effects from sidestream smoke are seen in adults who live with smokers. B) It increases risk for lung cancer, but not heart disease.
C) Children exposed to it have increased risk of developing respiratory problems.
D) It has fewer carcinogens, tar and nicotine than mainstream smoke.
22) Caffeine is which of the following? A) an addictive drug
B) a central nervous system stimulant
C) from a chemical family called xanthines D) all of the above
23) Of the following products, this one contains the most caffeine per serving: A) brewed coffee
B) Coca Cola
C) hot tea
D) Mountain Dew
24) Benefits to cessation of smoking can occur in as few as A) two weeks.
B) eight hours. C) one month. D) one week.
25) The following statement about the finding of recent caffeine research is true: A) Moderate caffeine consumption can cause mental dysfunction.
B) Caffeine causes long-term high blood pressure.
C) Moderate caffeine use produces few harmful effects in most people.
D) Caffeine in any amount is safe for pregnant women.