Can anyone shed some light on me for this problem?
Let X, Y be two independent random variables, each of which takes on values from {0, 1}. Suppose that for their joint p.m.f. p(x, y), it's already known that p(0, 0) = 0:08 and p(1, 1) = 0:48. Find p(0, 1) and p(1, 0) and justify your answer.