Should opening to trade increase inequality in economies


Problem

I. When moving from autarky to free trade, why does the classical (Ricardian) model generally lead to complete specialization in production and the neoclassical lead to incomplete specialization?

II. What is the Heckscher-Ohlin ("factor proportions") theorem of international trade?

III. Should opening to trade increase inequality in developed economies?

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Macroeconomics: Should opening to trade increase inequality in economies
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