Should drug use that leads to foreseeable harm
Problem
Should drug use that leads to foreseeable harm to others mitigate guilt or aggravate guilt? Is someone more guilty if they harm someone while under the influence of drugs, or less guilty?
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Discuss William David Ross's pluralist theory of good, which includes not just pleasure but also virtue, knowledge, and distribution in accordance with desert.
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Should drug use that leads to foreseeable harm to others mitigate guilt or aggravate guilt?
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Given the controversy described by Eberstadt about whether marriage is over, to what extent does that seem right?
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