Multiple choice questioins:
1. Which of the following is NOT an example of an organizational buyer?
A) a woman buying cookware to sell to her friends and neighbors.
B) a sales rep buying a new necktie to make a good impression.
C) a wholesaler buying a delivery truck.
D) a government buyer purchasing a new desk for the mayor's office.
E) None of the above is a good example.
2. Buying specialists for organizations are commonly called:
A) vendor agents.
B) value analysts.
C) purchasing managers.
D) consumer buyers.
E) supply agents.
3. Regarding organizational buying, the people who have the power to select or approve the supplier--especially for larger purchases--are called:
A) deciders.
B) buyers.
C) gatekeepers.
D) users.
E) influencers.
4. A "buying center"
A) refers to all the purchasing agents in a large firm.
B) is usually identified on a firm's organization chart.
C) is usually controlled by the purchasing manager.
D) is usually located in major wholesale markets.
E) may vary from purchase to purchase.
5. Purchasing managers
A) always buy from the lowest price supplier.
B) may be willing to pay more to reduce personal risk.
C) are usually the last ones a salesperson sees, after the order has been approved by the gatekeepers.
D) are, in general, not very well educated.
E) None of the above is true.
6. Bart Peterson, purchasing agent for Boswell Plastic Industries, routinely signs purchase orders for office supplies without further consideration. At Boswell, purchases of office supplies are
A) a necessity.
B) Somewhat Insignificant Commodity (SIC) items.
C) swayed by reciprocity.
D) a straight rebuy.
E) a modified rebuy.
7. Organizational buying based on a written (or verbal) description of a product is called ______________ buying.
A) reciprocity
B) negotiated contract
C) description
D) inspection
E) sampling
8. Cumming's Steel, a producer, regularly uses a specific railroad to ship its products, since that railroad buys most of the steel for its replacement track from Cumming's.
A) In this case, the railroad is a part of the buying center.
B) This is illegal and should be stopped immediately.
C) Reciprocity appears to be involved here.
D) All of the above are true.
E) None of the above is true.
9. U.S. manufacturers:
A) all employ many workers.
B) are evenly spread throughout the country.
C) tend to concentrate by industry.
D) do not locate close to competitors.
E) Both C and D.
10. "Open to buy"
A) refers to the business hours when the retail buyer is available for sales reps.
B) means that a retail buyer still has budgeted funds to spend during the current period.
C) refers to retail buyers who have shelf space available for new products.
D) means that "new-task" buying is likely.
E) means that a retail buyer is in the market looking for "good buys."
11. The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act:
A) allows small "grease money" payments if they are customary in that country.
B) does not hold a manager responsible if a foreign agent secretly pays a bribe.
C) allows U.S. firms to pay bribes to foreign officials.
D) all of the above.
E) only A and B above.
12. A ______________ is an organized way of continually gathering and analyzing data to get information to help marketing managers make decisions.
A) marketing model
B) marketing research project
C) marketing research department
D) marketing logistics system
E) marketing information system
13. Procedures to gather and analyze new information to help marketing managers make decisions are called:
A) statistical techniques.
B) operational planning.
C) strategy planning.
D) sample building units (SBUs).
E) marketing research.
14. Educated guesses about the relationships between things or about what will happen in the future are:
A) laws.
B) "facts."
C) hypotheses.
D) theories.
E) None of the above.
15. The first thing a marketing manager should do if one of his firm's products drops in sales volume is:
A) define the problem.
B) set research priorities.
C) do a situation analysis.
D) interview representative customers.
E) conduct a survey to see what is wrong.
16. The most difficult step in the marketing research process is:
A) interpreting the data.
B) defining the problem.
C) gathering primary data.
D) gathering secondary data.
E) both A and C.
17. Which of the following statements concerning secondary data is correct?
A) Secondary data is only available within the firm.
B) Secondary data was originally collected for some other purpose.
C) Secondary data usually takes longer to obtain than primary data.
D) All of the above are correct.
E) None of the above are correct.
18. Which of the following would NOT be a source of primary data?
A) Market tests
B) Focus groups
C) Observation studies
D) Surveys
E) The Wall Street Journal
19. "Qualitative research" involves:
A) questioning to obtain in-depth open-ended responses.
B) "yes-no" questionnaires.
C) studying secondary data.
D) talks with the firm's own managers.
E) None of the above.
20. An interview with 6 to 10 people in an informal group setting is called a(an):
A) focus group interview.
B) observation interview.
C) quantitative research interview.
D) informal investigation.
E) secondary interview.
21. Quantitative marketing research
A) can use a large, representative sample.
B) data can be collected by mail, telephone, or personal interviews.
C) makes it easier for the research analyst to summarize answers.
D) usually makes it easier and faster for respondents to answer the questions (compared to qualitative research).
E) All of the above are true.
22. Marketing research which seeks structured responses that can be summarized is called:
A) quantitative research.
B) qualitative research.
C) situation analysis research.
D) open-ended research.
E) focus group research.
23. Information is obtained on a continuing basis from the same respondents using a:
A) consumer panel.
B) responder group.
C) consumer experiment.
D) statistical package.
E) contributor group.
24. The total group a survey researcher is interested in is called the:
A) sample.
B) study group.
C) representative group.
D) population.
E) None of the above.
25. The part of the relevant population that is surveyed by a researcher is called the:
A) the focal group.
B) target population.
C) sample.
D) research group.
E) representative group.
26. "Product" means:
A) a physical good with all its related services.
B) the need-satisfying offering of a firm.
C) all of a firm's producing and distribution activities.
D) a well-packaged item with a well-advertised brand name.
E) all the services needed with a physical good.
27. A "product" might include:
A) instructions.
B) a service which does not include a physical good at all.
C) some physical item and its related features.
D) a brand name, a package, and a warranty.
E) All of the above.
28. A product assortment is:
A) a particular product within a product line.
B) a set of products that are closely related.
C) the set of all product lines and individual products that a firm sells.
D) something offered by manufacturers but not by retailers.
E) None of the above.
29. Which of the following is NOT one of the consumer product classes discussed in the text?
A) Imitation products
B) Shopping products
C) Convenience products
D) Specialty products
E) Unsought products
30. ______________ are products a consumer needs but isn't willing to spend much time and effort shopping for.
A) Unsought products
B) Homogeneous shopping products
C) Specialty products
D) Heterogeneous shopping products
E) Convenience products
31. Impulse products are:
A) bought quickly--as unplanned purchases--because of a strongly felt need.
B) any products that consumers search for because of a strongly felt craving.
C) any convenience products that are bought often and routinely.
D) products that potential customers do not want yet or know they can buy.
E) All of the above.
32. During a heavy rainstorm, Avery Battle slipped into a drugstore and bought an umbrella--just like the one he had at home--for $15.00 plus tax. In this case, the umbrella is:
A) a shopping product.
B) an unsought product.
C) an emergency product.
D) an impulse product.
E) a specialty product.
33. Consumer products which customers see as basically the same and want to buy at the lowest price are called:
A) homogeneous shopping products.
B) comparison products.
C) unsought products.
D) convenience products.
E) heterogeneous shopping products.
34. A producer that is selling all its products under one brand name is using ______________ brand.
A) a generic
B) a licensed
C) a national
D) an individual
E) a family
35. A "dealer brand" is sometimes called a ______________ brand.
A) local
B) manufacturer
C) private
D) regional
E) national
36. Dealer brands, compared to manufacturer brands, usually offer wholesalers and retailers:
A) higher gross margins.
B) faster turnover at reduced selling costs.
C) products which are presold to target customers.
D) more prestige.
E) less risk.
37. Which of the following is NOT one of the text's product life cycle stages?
A) Market penetration
B) Market introduction
C) Sales decline
D) Market growth
E) Market maturity
39. Total industry profits reach their maximum during the __________ stage of the product life cycle.
A) sales decline
B) market development
C) market introduction
D) market growth
E) market maturity
40. Competition is toughest in which of the following product life cycle stages?
A) market growth.
B) market maturity.
C) market development.
D) market introduction.
41. During the SALES DECLINE stage of the product life cycle
:
A) no profits are earned.
B) price competition usually declines.
C) brand loyalty declines.
D) monopoly is typical.
E) firms with strong brands may make profits almost until the end.
42. A new product idea is more likely to move quickly through the early stages of the product life cycle when:
A) the product is compatible with the values and experiences of target customers.
B) the product can be given a trial.
C) the product's advantages are easy to communicate.
D) the product is easy to use.
E) All of the above are correct.
43. During the introduction stage of the product life cycle,
A) most products achieve intensive distribution.
B) industry profits are at their highest.
C) promotion is likely to be needed to build primary demand.
D) "me-too" products quickly take market share away from the innovator.
E) None of the above is true.
44. Concerning the product life cycle:
A) individual products may enter and leave the market at any stage.
B) a successful introduction almost guarantees that the product will remain a success over the life cycle.
C) profits and sales begin to decline in the maturity stage.
D) All of the above are true.
E) None of the above is true.
45. According to the text, a "new product" is one that is:
A) unique.
B) new in any way for the company concerned.
C) completely new physically and conceptually.
D) physically changed.
E) None of the above.
46. According to the FTC, for a producer to call a product "new," the product:
A) must be no more than two months old.
B) must have achieved brand insistence.
C) must be entirely new or changed in a functionally significant or substantial respect.
D) must have been changed in some way during the last year.
E) Both A and C.
47. The last step in the new-product development process is:
A) commercialization.
B) idea evaluation.
C) development.
D) screening.
E) idea generation.
48. The legal obligation of sellers to pay damages to individuals who are injured by defective or unsafely designed products is called:
A) breach of warranty.
B) rule of reason.
C) product liability.
D) design enforcement.
E) product responsibility.
49. Which of the following statements about organizing for new-product development is TRUE?
A) Few new-product ideas fail when product managers control the new-product development process.
B) The specific organization arrangement may not be too important--as long as there is top-level support.
C) Marketing managers should control new-product development.
D) New-product development departments or committees usually cause delays and should be avoided.
E) All of the above are true.
50. Which of the following is NOT an example of an organizational buyer?
A) a woman buying cookware to sell to her friends and neighbors.
B) a sales rep buying a new necktie to make a good impression.
C) a wholesaler buying a delivery truck.
D) a government buyer purchasing a new desk for the mayor's office.
E) None of the above is a good example.