Q1. Which of the following is a difference between project management and portfolio management?
a. Project management involves making wise investment decisions whereas portfolio management does not.
b. Portfolio management is an easy task whereas project management is a more difficult task.
c. Portfolio management asks questions like, "Are we carrying out projects efficiently?" whereas project management asks questions such as "Are we investing in the right areas?"
d. Project management addresses specific, short-term goals whereas portfolio management focuses on long-term goals.
Q2. Project procurement management primarily involves identifying stakeholder needs while managing their engagement throughout the life of the project.
a. True
b. False
Q3. Project managers work with the project sponsors to define success for particular projects.
a. True
b. False
Q4. Which of the following questions reflect the strategic goals of project portfolio management?
a. Are we carrying out projects well?
b. Are projects on time and on budget?
c. Are we investing in the right areas?
d. Do stakeholders know what they should be doing?
Q5. Which of the following project management knowledge areas is an overarching function that affects and is affected by the different knowledge areas?
a. Project cost management
b. Project stakeholder management
c. Project integration management
d. Project communications management
Q6. Which of the following statements is true of project management?
a. It is a simple discipline with a limited scope.
b. It has specific tools which work universally across all kinds of projects.
c. It does not guarantee successes for all projects.
d. Its framework consists solely of project management knowledge areas.
Q7. Which of the following best defines the role of leaders?
a. They focus on short-term objectives.
b. They work on achieving primarily tactical goals.
c. They work solely toward day-to-day details of meeting specific tasks.
d. They inspire people to reach goals.
Q8. Which of the following refers to a set of principles that guides decision making based on personal values of what is considered right and wrong?
a. Ethics
b. Civics
c. Laws
d. Politics
Q9. The only responsibility of a project manager is to meet the specific scope, time, and cost goals of a project.
a. True
b. False
Q10. Enterprise project management softwares are also known as _____ tools of project management software.
a. baseline
b. midrange
c. low-end
d. high-end
Q11. Which of the following project management knowledge areas primarily involve generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information?
a. Project cost management
b. Project procurement management
c. Project time management
d. Project communications management
Q12. Galaxy, a construction company, buys a particular brand of tiles manufactured by Tiles and Floors, an eco-friendly tile manufacturing company. However, Tiles and Floors has declared bankruptcy and closed down. At present, Galaxy is facing a crisis because there are no other manufacturers in the market that supplies eco-friendly tiles. Which of the following constraints is Galaxy currently facing?
a. Resources
b. Time
c. Scope
d. Cost
Q13. Project _____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was undertaken.
a. cost
b. time
c. risk
d. quality
Q14. The project time management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activity of schedule control.
a. initiating
b. planning
c. executing
d. monitoring and controlling
Q15. Examples of _____ processes include acquiring and developing the project team, performing quality assurance, distributing information, managing stakeholder expectations, and conducting procurements.
a. monitoring and controlling
b. executing
c. planning
d. initiating
Q16. The improvement of the product and process in the Scrum method is discussed at the _____.
a. sprint reflection meeting
b. sprint review meeting
c. kick-off meeting
d. daily Scrum meeting
Q17. _____ is a planning process that is within the Project Scope Management knowledge area.
a. Schedule development
b. Developing a project management plan
c. Creation of a WBS
d. Quality planning
Q18. Which of the following is true about the agile method?
a. It is often used when a project team can express the scope early in the product life cycle.
b. It is used when a project team wants to provide a potentially shippable product earlier rather than later.
c. It uses several iterations or deliveries of software instead of waiting until the end of the project to provide a product.
d. It is used when project teams want to use the predicative approach to a project.
Q19. Which of the following activities is a part of the planning process of the Scrum?
a. Determining how many sprints will compose each release
b. Demonstrating the product during a sprint review meeting
c. Completing tasks each day during sprints
d. Creating sprint backlog
Q20. _____ are an output of the executing process of project integration management.
a. Deliverables
b. Issue logs
c. Resource calendars
d. Enterprise environmental factor updates
Q21. The project stakeholder management knowledge area maps to the ______ process group by identifying stakeholders.
a. initiating
b. planning
c. executing
d. monitoring and controlling
Q22. _____ processes include defining and authorizing a project or project phase.
a. Initiating
b. Planning
c. Executing
d. Monitoring and controlling
Q23. The main purpose of project plans is to _____.
a. schedule management plans
b. define project scope
c. estimate activity resources
d. guide project execution
Q24. A sprint review is a meeting in which the team demonstrates to the product owner what it has completed during the sprint.
a. True
b. False
Q25. _____ processes include devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project addresses the organization's needs.
a. Initiating
b. Planning
c. Executing
d. Monitoring and controlling
Q26. The kick-off meeting is always held before the business case and project charter are completed.
a. True
b. False
Q27. Organizational process assets update is the output of the closing process of _____.
a. project integration management
b. project quality management
c. project procurement management
d. project time management
Q28. Which of the following best describes a kill point in the project life cycle?
a. The period of time given to managers during the feasibility phases to decide on the cost, quality, and time constraints for the project
b. A review of the status of a project at each phase of development to determine if it should be continued, redirected, or terminated
c. The point of time in the project lifecycle after which it is impossible to terminate a running project
d. The final submission of the project deliverables after which the project is terminated
Q29. In Rizzati Corp, vice presidents in departments such as engineering, manufacturing, IT, and human resources report directly to the chief executive officer and undertake their tasks independently of each other. The staffs of these departments have specialized skills in their respective disciplines.Rizatti Corp can be said to have a _____ organizational structure.
a. project
b. symbolic
c. matrix
d. functional
Q30. A preliminary or rough cost estimate is developed in the _____ phase of the project life cycle, and an overview of the work involved is created.
a. implementation
b. acquisition
c. concept
d. close-out
Q31. The symbolic perspective of an organization:
a. focuses on different groups' roles and responsibilities to meet the goals and policies set by top management.
b. views the organization as coalitions composed of varied individuals and interest groups.
c. focuses on providing harmony between the needs of the organization and the needs of people.
d. focuses on the meanings of the culture, language, traditions, and image of the organization.
Q32. Which of the following is true of virtual teams?
a. It is easier for a virtual team to build relationships and trust.
b. Negative incentives do not impact virtual team members.
c. It is important to select team members carefully.
d. As they never meet, virtual teams do not have conflicts.
Q33. _____ refers to a problem-solving approach that requires defining the scope of a system, dividing it into its components, and then identifying and evaluating its problems, opportunities, constraints, and needs.
a. Linear programming
b. Independent component analysis
c. Principal component analysis
d. Systems analysis
Q34. In a _____ organizational structure, personnel often report to both a functional manager and one or more project managers.
a. project
b. symbolic
c. matrix
d. functional
Q35. The _____ perspective on organizations assumes that organizations are coalitions composed of varied individuals and interest groups.
a. political frame
b. symbolic frame
c. structural frame
d. human resources frame
Q36. The _____ model uses an approach in which developers work with an evolving prototype, using tools such as computer-aided software engineering, joint requirements planning, and joint application design to facilitate rapid prototyping and code generation.
a. incremental build life cycle
b. waterfall life cycle
c. RAD life cycle
d. spiral life cycle
Q37. In organizational culture, people focus refers to _____.
a. the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment
b. the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee and control employee behavior
c. the degree to which management's decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on employees within the organization
d. the degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking
Q38. Which of the following is true of the agile approach to software development?
a. In the agile method, requirements and solutions evolve through collaboration.
b. An agile approach sets scope goals, but leaves time and cost goals flexible.
c. Agile is a predictive model of software development.
d. In the agile approach, requirements must be clearly expressed early in the life cycle.
Q39. Which of the following is true of a matrix organizational structure?
a. In a matrix organizational structure, employees are organized into departments according to their skills, and there is little interaction between employees from different departments.
b. Project managers in matrix organizations have staff from only a single functional area working on their projects.
c. In a strong matrix organizational structure, the project manager controls the project budget and has moderate to high authority.
d. A matrix organizational structure is hierarchical, but instead of functional managers reporting to the CEO, program managers report to the CEO.
Q40. The _____ perspective of an organization focuses on different groups' roles and responsibilities in order to meet the goals and policies set by top management.
a. structural frame
b. human resources frame
c. political frame
d. symbolic frame