Is it possible to explain within this formalism the


You should check it out because it's an amusing read, but I will summarise the argument to whet your appetite, assuming you have basic familiarity with the Aharonov-Bohm (AB) effect. In the traditional AB setup, one considers an electron in a superposition of paths, taking it in two opposite directions around a solenoid treated as a classical source of the electromagnetic field. The observable relative phase acquired between the electron's paths is attributed to the influence of the magnetic vector potential on the electron, which cannot be globally gauged away - despite the absence of a physical field anywhere along the electron's path(s) - due to a topological obstruction.

Instead, Vaidman considers the effect of the electron on the sources of the field, treating the latter as quantum particles. He shows that the relative phase between the two branches of the wavefunction can be considered as arising from the action of the physical field of the electron, which is not zero at the position of the sources. However, Vaidman uses highly contrived gedankenexperiments and completely semi-classical arguments, which begs a pair of concrete and related questions.

1) Can Vaidman's first, electric AB effect gedankenexperiment be described in a fully quantum manner, by solving (at least approximately) the three-particle Schroedinger equation? If not, why not?

2) Is it possible to explain within this formalism the experiments of Tonomura et al. (Phys. Rev. Lett. 56 no. 8, pp. 792-795 (1986)), who used a superconductor to completely shield the magnetic field of the source?

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Physics: Is it possible to explain within this formalism the
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