In the ricardian model with free trade changes in absolute
Please tell me True or False and why.
In the Ricardian model with free trade, changes in absolute advantage have no effect on welfare as long as comparative advantages do not change.
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1 the monopolists faces a demand curve given by dp 100 - 2p its cost function is cy 2y what is its optimal level of
please tell me true or false and whyin the ricardian model with free trade changes in absolute advantage have no effect
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