If the value of excess demand in 8 out of 10 markets is


1. Is it possible to have a Pareto efficient allocation where someone is worse off than he is at an allocation that is not Pareto efficient?

2. If the value of excess demand in 8 out of 10 markets is equal to zero, what must be true about the remaining markets?

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Business Economics: If the value of excess demand in 8 out of 10 markets is
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