Hazardous Materials
1: NCP stands for:
2: RRT Stands for
3: Does the operational level of a first responder include awareness and response to a hazardous material incident?
Yes
No
4: Identification training of hazardous material workers, supervisor, and responders, must include which of the following?
Placards, markings, labels
Shape of containers
Shipping papers
MSDS
Occupancy involved
5: A person, trained at only the awareness level regarding hazardous materials, would not be required to take the actions of a person trained at the operational level.
True
False
6: In many hazardous materials incidents the primary concern should be to avoid making the incident worse than it already is.
True
False
7: A person who has had operational training regarding hazardous materials should have the ability to decide the appropriate first course of action in an incident.
True
False
8: The Federal National Contingency Plan was created in:
1974
1984
1987
1989
9: Safety must become a philosophy of emergency response life and an overriding consideration in all decision making.
True
False
10: Check which of the ways hazardous materials are harmful to people at hazardous material incidents from the list below.
Thermal
Radioactive
Asphyxiation
Chemical
All of the above
11: Check which of the ways listed below are routes of entry for human exposure to hazardous materials.
Contact
Absorption
Inhalation
Ingestion
All of the above
A and C
A, C and D
12: Is ordinary clothing acceptable attire for working at a hazardous materials incident involving corrosive acid?
Yes
No
13: Do hazardous material release pose a threat to property and the environment?
Yes
No
14: Does emergency medical treatment of hazardous material victims require special first aid procedures?
Yes
No
15: Must all medical responders have special training and equipment?
Yes
No
16: Name three typical ignition sources which might be found at the scene of a hazardous material incident:
17: Is it possible for the Commander at a hazardous materials incident to be changed one or more times during the incident?
Yes
No
18: Name at least two physical devices which may be used to deny the public access to a hazardous materials site:
19: In evacuation of a hazardous materials incident area, are there any guidelines as to the area evacuation?
Yes
No
20: Is prevailing wind direction considered?
Yes
No
21: Which of the following are clues for detecting the presence of hazardous materials?
Occupancy and or location
Container shapes
Container markings and colors
Placards and labels
MSDS and shipping papers
Senses
All of the above
22: Name three locations where hazardous materials may usually be found:
23: Is the following statement true or false? "For many hazardous materials, quantities of less than 1000 pounds do not require a placard, but 990 pounds of the material may be as dangeroius as 1000 pounds".
True
False
24: The "Dangerous" placard may be misleading since it provides no specific information about the hazardous material
True
False
25: Some materials are not classified as dangerous by the DOT and will not have a placard but their properties are hazardous enough to cause problems if any accident occurs.
True
False
26: It should be understood that most hazardous materials have multiple hazardous characteristics.
True
False
27: Human error is not a factor in the effectiveness of placarding and labeling.
True
False
28: MSDS and/or Bill of Lading are to be located in the cab of any truck carrying hazardous materials.
True
False
29: On railroads a waybill, or what report, is with the conductor when hazardous materials are transported?
30: On a ship, where is the dangerous cargo manifest located?
31: On an aircraft, where is the certification for restricted articles located?
32: The NFPA...is the Standard System for the Identification of Fire Hazards of Materials.
704
774
174
104
33: A hazardous material is a substance (gas, liquid, solid) capable of creating harm to people, property, and the environment.
True
False
34: A container with a three blade propeller type label would indicate marine vessel fuel.
True
False
35: A placard with the number 4 at the bottom indicates radioactive materials.
True
False
36: A label with the skull and crossbones indicate poison
True
False
37: A label with the word "Danger", a skull and crossbones, and an EPA registration number at the bottom would indicate a pesticide.
True
False
38: A waybill is used by the railroad to list hazardous materials on a train.
True
False
39: Hazardous Materials in the U.S. and Dangerous Goods in Canada are basically the same although they may be classified differently,
True
False
40: Identify three sources for obtaining hazardous materials response information;
41: An MSDS contains manufacturer's name, location, chemical name and family, hazardous ingredient, physical data, fire and explosion data, health hazard data reactivity data, spill or leak procedures, special, protection information and special precautions
True
False
42: Control operations include containment, extinguishment and confinement
True
False
43: ERG (DOT) stands for:
44: Does the ERG contain evacuation distances?
Yes
No
45: Is personal contact with the transporter one method of identifying the type of hazardous materials being transported?
Yes
False
46: The first responder at the operational level is not expected to use specialist chemical protective clothing or special control equipment.
True
False
47: Can flying debris and shrapnel result from a BLEVE incident?
Yes
False
48: Will full protective gear and SCBA be effective in all hazardous materials incident?
Yes
No
49: In a hazardous materials incident, is assessing the risk as important as early recognition and identification?
Yes
No
50: Is a hazardous materials response plan necessary for proper handling of a hazardous materials incident?
Yes
No
51: Do hazardous materials response programs vary from one state to another
Yes
No
52: Do hazardous materials response programs vary from one community to another?
Yes
No
53: Is it necessary to keep an activity log at a hazardous materials incident?
Yes
No
54: What is boiling point?
Temperature at which water boils
Temperature at which a material/liquid boils
Temperature at which mercury boils
212 degrees Fahrenheit
55: LFL stands for:
56: A vapor density of 1.8 means the vapor is:
Heavier than air
Lighter than air
57: Ignition temperature and auto ignition temperature are interchangeable terms.
True
False
58: A substance with a specific gravity of .8 is:
Lighter than water
Heavier than water
59: Flash point of a liquid is used to determine the relative degree of flammability.
True
False
60: Vapor pressure is measured in what unit?
61: Alpha radiation is a:
Positive charged particle
Negative charged particle
62: A beta particle is:
Smaller than an alpha particle
Larger than an alpha particle
63: Protective clothing will prevent penetration by gamma radiation.
True
False
64: OSHA prescribes the proper respiratory protection to be used in a hazardous materials situation or environment.
True
False
65: Is high temperature clothing normally used in hazardous materials incidents?
Yes
No
66: Are there federal regulations pertaining to hazardous materials responders?
Yes
No
67: A decontamination site should be located in the hot zone at an incident.
True
False
68: There is a joint manual for hazardous waste site operations produced by the EPA, NIOSH, OSHA and USCG.
True
False
69: Employers have an obligation to provide training that is adequate for the anticipated degree of involvement of their employees where hazardous materials are concerned.
True
False
70: Cold Zone may also be referred to as clean zone or support zone.
True
False
71: Confinement and containment are the same.
True
False
72: TLV Stands for:
73: LD Stands for Lethal Dose.
True
False
74: IDLH stands for:
75: PPM stands for:
76: PEL stands for Possible Exposure Limit
True
False
77: STEL stands for:
78: TLV-TWA stands for:
79: TLV-C stands for:
80: Weather conditions and terrain are considered during a hazardous material incident.
True
False
81: Polymerization is normally a violent reaction.
True
False
82: SADT stands for:
83: The opposite of sublimation is deposition.
True
False
84: Viscosity of oil decreases when oil is cooled.
True
False
85: The higher the vapor pressure of a liquid, the more volatile the liquid.
True
False
86: Some materials are capable of reacting explosively on exposure to water.
True
False
87: Flammability is monitored by a ....gas indicator
88: A gamma radiation survey instrument also measures alpha and beta radiation.
True
False
89: Corrosivity can be measured by the use of ...... papers and strips.
90: Colormetric tubes, used to measure gases and vapors, are not affected by high humidity.
True
False
91: The use of personal protective equipment is a federal mandate by virtue of OSHA 29 CFR 1910 and EPA 40 CFR 300.
True
False
92: There are how many levels of protection designated by EPA/OSHA publications (personal protective equipment)?
3
6
7
5
93: Name the levels of protection designated by EPA and OSHA for PPE.
94: CPC stands for:
95: Most hazardous wastes are mixtures
True
False
96: Self-contained breathing apparatus should be worn when the atmosphere is (or likely to become) immediately dangerous.
True
False
97: The basic design, construction, and materials used in fixed tanks is published by ASME, API and NFPA
True
False
98: NFPA 471 contains procedures for mitigation of hazardous materials incidents.
True
False
99: Absorption and adsorption are the same.
True
False
100: All contaminated material must undergo appropriate disposal.
True
False
101: Federal regulations require medical surveillance of personnel responding to hazardous material incidents on a continuing basis.
True
False
102: Which standard applies to the "standard test method for resistance of protective clothing materials to permeation by hazardous liquid chemicals"?
ANSI Z88.2-1981
ASTM F23.50
ASTM G23.50
ASTM F23.30
103: Which of the following chemicals could enter through the skin unless protective clothing is worn?
Hydrogen cyanide
Benzene
Gasoline
All of the above
104: What type of protective clothing would be worn to guard against oils, acid and alkalies?
Rubber
Neoprene
Cloth
All of the above
105: The most important limitation of a mechanical filter is:
It must warn the operator if it is no longer working properly
It must be used for only a short period of time
It must not be worn in an oxygen deficient atmosphere
All of the above
106: Which chemical below does not have an approved air purifying respirator?
Sulfuric acid
Ammonia
Toluene
Hydrogen sulfied
107: According to ANSI, what is the minimum acceptable concentration of air for use without requiring respirator protection?
10%
15%
19.5%
20.9%
108: According to ANSI, a gas mask canister color coded green can be used for what type of exposure?
Carbon monoxide
Ammonia
Chlorine
Acid gases
109: Which of the following respirators would be allowed in an atmosphere "immediately hazardous to life and health"?
ACBA demand type
SCBA pressure-damand type
Airline respirator, demand type with egress bottle
All of the above
110: The maximum permissible concentration can be determined by:
Multiplying the protection factor by the threshold limit value
Dividing the protection factor by the threshold limit value
Dividing the protection factor by the threshold limit value and then squaring it
Multiplying the protection factor by the threshold limit value and then obtaining the square root
111: Respirators, stored for emergency or rescue use, should be inspected:
Daily
Weekly
Monthly
Quarterly
112: What regulation refers to the respiratory protective devices' tests for permissibility and fees, or the NIOSH certified personal protective equipment?
NIOSH 110
29 CFR 1910.1000
29 CFR 1910.134
30 CFR Part 3
113: The protection factor of a respirator is found by:
Subtracting the concentration outside the respirator from the concentration inside the respirator
Dividing the concentration outside the respirator by the respirator
Dividing the concentration inside the respirator by the concentration outside the respirator
Subtracting the concentration inside the respirator from the concentration outside the respirator
114: Which respirator has the greatest protection factor?
Self contained breathing apparatus, demand type, full-face mask
Airline respirator, pressure-demand, full face mask
Organic vapor/acid gas canister respirator
Airline respirator, demand, half mask
115: Liquid air must meet which of the following criteria to be acceptable?
Type 1 - Grade A
Type 2 - Grade A
Type 3 - Grade B
Type 1 - Grade D
116: The most important part of a full-face mask would be the:
Straps
Seal
Exhalation value
Inhalation valve
117: What two chemicals are used to produce the smoke in the irritant smoke qualitative fit test?
Vanadium pentoxide and water
Carbon monoxide and sodium chloride
Stannic chloride and titanium tetrachloride
Hydrochloric acid and water
118: Which of the following is not an acceptable method to clean respirators?
Wash with quarternary ammonium solution
Wash wish a hypochlorite solution
Wash with an iodine solution
Wash with a ammonia solution
119: Which regulations cover worker protection?
SARA
CERCLA
OSHA
HMTA
RCRA
120: Which regulations cover the transportation of hazardous waste?
RCRA
CERCLA
OSHA
HMTA
A and D
121: Worker protection standards for hazardous waste workers can be found in:
29 CFR 1910.120
40 CFR
49 CFR
122: The Department of Transportation standards for transporters of hazardous waste are found in:
29 CRF 1910.120
40 CFR
49 CFR
123: Pesticides are regulated by:
FIFRA
OSHA
CERCLA
SARA
124: Medical surveillance programs are conducted:
As a baseline
Annually
After exposure
When leaving the company (exit)
All of the above
125: Corrosive waste can exhibit which of the following characteristics?
pH<2
pH>12.5
Is corrosive according to the NACE test
A and B
A, B and C
126: Which part of CFR pertains to transportors of hazardous waste?
261
262
263
264
268
127: The tracking document for hazardous waste is:
RCRA Biennial reports
Hazardous Waste Labels
Bill of Lading
Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest
128: The EPA hazardous waste identification number for corrosive waste is:
D001
D002
D003
D004
F001
129: The EPA hazardous waste identification number for spent halogenated solvents (i.e., carbon tetrachloride) waste is:
D001
D002
D003
D004
F001
130: The reportable quantity for hazardous substances if:
1 pound
100 pounds
5000 pounds
Ranges from 1 to 5000 pounds
131: SARA Title III is more commonly known as:
Superfund
Community Right-to-Know
Employee Right-to-Know
LUST Trust
132: The TLV of hazardous substance is the:
Toxic level value
Toxicity limit value
Threshold limit value
Toxicity lethal variation
133: The best immediate source of information about a toxic substance is:
EPA
MSDS sheets
OSHA manual
Dictionary
134: The PEL for hazardous substances are:
Set by OSHA
Set by ACGIH
Reviewed every six months
Only estimates for permissible exposures
135: Aliphatic ethers generally have low flashpoints but upon aging tend to become explosive due to the formation of:
Acids
Amine bases
Organic peroxides
Esters
136: When gasoline is poured on water, which is not true?
It floats because it is lighter than water
Gasoline does not dissolve in water
The gasoline will not burn because it is floating on water
Gasoline is less dense than water
137: Which of the following statements about personal protective equipment is true?
The use of protective equipment may create significant worker hazards.
Under-protection is dangerous but over-protection is acceptable
There is a single combination of protective equipment that will protect against all hazards
In considering hazards associated with personal protective equipment, psychological stress is not significant.
138: EPA has established four levels of personal protection. The highest level of protection is:
A
B
C
D
139: A tyvek suit, nitrile gloves, rubber boots and no respirator is:
Level D protection
Level C protection
Level B protection
Level A protection
140: A chain-of-custody is:
66 feet long
A document that traces possession
A billing form used by laboratories
A fancy name for a field notebook
A new method of keeping track of children
141: The three work zones at a hazardous materials emergency are the hot, warm, and cold zones. Other names for these zones are:
Exclusion zone, support zone, and contamination zone
Exclusion zone, contamination reduction zone, and command post
Exclusion zone, contamination reduction zone, and support zone
Command zone, buffer zone, and hot zone
142: The command post is located:
In the cold zone
In the warm zone
In the hot zone
On the hotline
Downwind of the exclusion zone
143: In a Level B deconprocedure, a change of SCBA tanks is usually done:
At the contamination control line
At the hot line
In the support zone
In the exclusion zone
In the contamination reduction zone
144: The greatest asset to the first responder controlling the scene is:
Encapsulated suits
Law enforcement personnel
Awareness and discipline
Constant communication with CHEMTREC
145: The greater the threat and/or the less that is known about the product, presume:
Immediate action should be taken
Additional teams are going to be required
The material may explode upon contact
The worst
146: Assessment of the biological effect of a hazmat exposure depends on:
Duration of exposure
Signs and symptoms of toxicity
Route of exposure
Delayed effects
All of the above
147: The incident commander faced with a pressurized tank impinged by fire should direct his crew to:
Use water from unmanned monitor nozzles to cool the tank quickly in order to reduce gas pressure inside the tank
Not worry about pressure inside the tank as it should remain fairly constant
Extinguish the fire, but not try to cool the tank because the pressure inside the tank should decrease with a heat increase
Attack the fire with hand lines and rely on the safety relief valves to reduce the pressure
148: To determine appropriate responses tactics during a hazardous materials emergency, it is best if you:
Are able to identify the product(s) without the use of external resources and references
Rely on a single good reference or resource
Rely on more than one reference or resource
Rely on a single individual within your organization to keep current with technical information concerning hazardous materials
149: The most important reason that zones are set up at a hazardous materials incident is:
To make sure incoming equipment and apparatus are staged in a safe location
Because it is mandated by various federal agencies such as DOT, OSHA, and NFPA
To isolate and minimize risks to the public and to emergency response personnel
All of the above
150: Which of the following statements about dealing with a flammable liquid hazmat incident is true?
Although these types of incidents are common, a post-incident analysis should still be conducted to help prepare for the next one
Sometimes the appropriate response is to let the materials burn
Potential environmental impact should be minimized from the very start of handling this type of hazmat incident
All of the above
151: After a spill that ends up in a stream, consider that:
You can only dike a narrow stream
You can dike for contaminants that are lighter than water
You can dike for contaminants that are heavier than water
Both B and C are true
152: At a hazmat incident where there is clearly a leak and fire of liquified gas, you can anticipate a BLEVE if:
There is activation of the relief valve and there's a noticeable increase in the hissing sound
The tank has burned for a long time and the liquid level is now the vapor level
The metal tank is discoloring and bulging in one or more spots
All of the above
153: A liquid exposed to fire during a hazmat incident will produce more vapor than under normal conditions. The more vapor, the:
Less the pressure inside a confined container
Greater chance of total ignition and/or related chemical exposure
Less chance of total ignition
Easier the primary fire will be extinguished
154: Support personnel who were inside the........must be decontaminated.
Hot zone
Warm zone
Cold zone
A and B
155: With respect to the transport of hazardous materials, the International Classification System:
Uses 9 classes and various divisions
Is the same as the DOT hazardous classes
Is required by the EPA
More than one of the above
156: Transporter requirements for the shipping of hazardous waste include all of the following except:
Sign and date the manifest prior to leaving the generator's facility
Return one copy of the signed manifest to the generator prior to leaving the generator's facility
Delivery of the entire manifested amount to the designated facility
Select an alternate receiving facility if the designated facility cannot accept the shipment, retain one copy of the manifest following delivery of the waste
157: A DOT hazardous label contains:
The DOT name of the waste
The generator's EPA number
Accumulation start date
Generator's address
All of the above
None of the above
158: The placard for cargo tanks must contain:
The UN or NA number
Hazard class name
Name of the shipper
Emergency phone number
A and B
C and D
None of the above
159: The process of adding materials to decrease the mobility of the waste constituent is called:
Distillation
Filtration
Air stripping
Immobilization
160: A container of "acute" hazardous waste is empty when:
<1" of residue at the bottom or in the liner
No more than 3% wt. if the container is in gallons
No more than 0.3% wt. if the container is in gallons
A and B
None of the above