Qualitative Research
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which type of research includes an array of interpretative techniques which seek to describe, decode, translate, and otherwise come to terms with the meaning of certain phenomena?
A) quantitative
B) qualitative
C) statistical
D) descriptive
E) causal
2. The primary concern with using qualitative techniques is that qualitative data are too _____.
A) expensive
B) time-consuming
C) subjective
D) objective
E) structured
3. Which type of research attempts a precise measurement of some behavior, knowledge, opinion, or attitude?
A) quantitative
B) qualitative
C) exploratory
D) cross-sectional
E) longitudinal
4. Qualitative research seeks to _____ theory while quantitative research _____ it.
A) examine, interprets
B) build, tests
C) test, understands
D) apply, builds
E) justify, applies
5. Which of the following research purposes are associated with qualitative research?
A) description
B) prediction
C) theory building
D) theory testing
E) forecasting
6. Which of the following is true of quantitative research?
A) it uses a nonprobability sampling method
B) results are generalizable
C) data analysis is ongoing during the project
D) sample sizes are generally small
E) it uses multiple data collection methods
7. Exercises that prepare participants for individual or group interviews on a topic are called _____.
A) calisthenics
B) projection techniques
C) homework
D) pretasking
E) focused preparation
8. Which type of sampling technique involves selecting research participants with no attempt at generating a statistically representative sample?
A) probability
B) nonprobability
C) random
D) systematic
E) cluster
9. All of the following are types of nonprobability sampling techniques except _____.
A) purposive sampling
B) snowball sampling
C) convenience sampling
D) random sampling
E) all are types of nonprobability techniques
10. Which type of nonprobability sampling technique involves choosing participants arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, attitudes, or perceptions?
A) random sampling
B) purposive sampling
C) convenience sampling
D) snowball sampling
E) quota sampling
11. Which type of nonprobability sampling technique involves choosing participants who then refer others with similar or different characteristics?
A) random sampling
B) purposive sampling
C) convenience sampling
D) snowball sampling
E) quota sampling
12. Snowball sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique in which _____.
A) participants are chosen arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, or attitudes
B) participants are chosen and then refer others with similar or different characteristics
C) researchers select any readily available individuals as participants
D) researchers systematically select participants from a sampling frame
E) researchers chose readily available individuals as participants but seek to ensure a good mix of demographic characteristics
13. Convenience sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique in which _____.
A) participants are chosen arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, or attitudes
B) participants are chosen and then refer others with similar or different characteristics
C) researchers select any readily available individuals as participants
D) researchers systematically select participants from a sampling frame
E) researchers chose readily available individuals as participants but seek to ensure a good mix of demographic characteristics
14. Which type of nonprobability sampling technique is most useful when individuals with the desired characteristics, experiences, or attitudes are difficult to identify or reach?
A) random sampling
B) purposive sampling
C) convenience sampling
D) snowball sampling
E) quota sampling
15. Jane is conducting interviews in order to develop a customer profile for her client. She customizes each interview to each participant and does not ask specific questions. What type of interview format is Jane using?
A) structured
B) semistructured
C) unstructured
D) closed-ended
E) direct interviewing
16. _____ interviews have certain specific questions that are asked of all participants but also allow the interviewer freedom to probe the respondent based on his or her specific answers.
A) structured
B) semistructured
C) unstructured
D) closed-ended
E) direct interviewing
17. Which of the following is true of structured interviews?
A) permits direct comparability of responses
B) encourages variation in questions
C) interviewer probes may bias answers
D) responses are closed-ended
E) all of the above
18. Jackson is conducting interviews to identify patterns in consumer decision making for high-involvement products. Which type of interview should he use if he needs a high degree of comparability among responses, no question variability, and to maintain his own neutrality during the interviews?
A) unstructured
B) structured
C) semistructured
D) closed-ended
E) briefing
19. Which type of interview requires the least amount of skill and creativity on the part of the interviewer?
A) unstructured
B) structured
C) semistructured
D) exploratory
E) briefing
20. Which of the following channels of communication would not be used when conducting interviews?
A) face-to-face
B) telephone
C) chat room
D) mail
E) instant messaging
21. Qualitative methods that encourage participants to reveal hidden or suppressed attitudes, ideas, emotions, and motives are called _____ techniques.
A) deceptive
B) unstructured
C) projective
D) focus group
E) semistructured
22. Jack is participating in a research study. The interviewer asks Jack to say the first word that comes to mind when he hears a product's benefits. What type of projective technique is this an example of?
A) thematic apperception test
B) sentence completion
C) brand mapping
D) laddering
E) word association
23. When using the _____ projective technique, participants are asked to write the dialog for a cartoon picture.
A) word association
B) picture association
C) thematic apperception test
D) empty balloons
E) laddering
24. When using the _____, participants are confronted with a picture and asked to describe how the person in the picture feels and thinks.
A) word association
B) picture association
C) thematic apperception test
D) empty balloons
E) laddering
25. When using _____, participants are asked to relate the properties of one thing or person or brand to another.
A) imagination exercises
B) picture association
C) the thematic apperception test
D) empty balloons
E) laddering
26. When using _____, participants are asked to assume that the brand and its users populate an entire universe, and to describe the features of this new world.
A) word association
B) imaginary universe
C) thematic apperception test
D) empty balloons
E) laddering
27. When using the _____ projective technique, participants are presented with flash cards containing component features and asked to create new combinations.
A) component sorts
B) picture association
C) thematic apperception test
D) sensory sorts
E) laddering
28. When using the _____ projective technique, participants are presented with scents, textures and sounds, and asked to arrange them by one or more criteria.
A) brand mapping
B) sensory sorts
C) thematic apperception test
D) component sorts
E) laddering
29. In a study of attitudes toward buying fake goods, participants are asked to complete this sentence: "People who buy fake Louis Vuitton handbags are ….." This is an example of a(n) _____ projective technique.
A) picture association
B) empty balloons
C) sentence completion
D) imagination exercise
E) personification
30. Participants in a study designed to identify symbolic benefits associated with Sutter Home wines are shown a photograph of a man eating at an upscale restaurant. The man in the picture is alone and has a glass of wine with his mea. The participants are asked to describe how the person in the picture feels and thinks. This is an example of a(n) _____ projective technique.
A) picture association
B) empty balloons
C) thematic apperception test
D) imagination exercise
E) personification
31. Which term below refers to a trained interviewer used for group interviews such as focus groups?
A) therapist
B) inquisitor
C) moderator
D) discussion guide
E) probe
32. Interview guides begin with _____ questions, following a hierarchical questioning structure.
A) narrow issue
B) narrow topical
C) broad issue
D) narrow interest
E) any of the above
33. The semistructured or structured interview guide designed to qualify prospects for participation in research project is called a(n) _____.
A) pretasking exercise
B) recruitment screener
C) hierarchical question structure
D) computer-assisted interview
E) none of the above
34. American Airlines is conducting a qualitative study on preferences of business travelers who fly frequently. Before inviting an individual to participate, the researcher on the project wants to ensure that all participants travel for business more than pleasure and meet the American Airlines' definition of frequent flier. What is the best way for the researcher to ensure that participants will meet these criteria?
A) use a recruitment screener prior to inviting individuals to participate
B) delete interviews after the study ends from those who don't meet the qualifications
C) draw a sample from a list of people with an American Airlines affinity credit card
D) draw a sample from a list of people with an affinity credit card associated with any airline
E) contact a travel agency for a list of prospects
35. When individual depth interviews are aided by the use of computer-generated visual and auditory aids, the method is known as _____.
A) computer-assisted telephone interviewing (CATI)
B) computer-assisted personal interviewing (CAPI)
C) online interviewing
D) group interviewing
E) computer-aided design (CAD)
36. Research on service quality frequently uses a technique called _____ in which the participant describes what led up to an incident, what was effective or ineffective, and the outcome.
A) life histories
B) cultural interviews
C) sequential interviewing
D) critical incident technique
E) oral history
37. How many participants are typically in a mini-group interview?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 2 to 6
D) 6 to 10
E) up to 20
38. A group interview seeking to understand spousal influence on decision making or the influence of the opinion of a sibling on brand preferences would likely utilize a _____.
A) dyad
B) triad
C) mini-group
D) small group
E) supergroup
39. Anne is moderating a focus group of university professors to understand how they use multimedia in the classroom. All of the participants teach classes with more than 100 students at large, public universities. The composition of this group could be described as _____.
A) heterogeneous
B) homogeneous
C) nonexpert
D) dyadic
E) none of the above
40. Which statement below best reflects the general rule regarding how many group interviews should be conducted for a given research project?
A) conduct interviews until no new insight is gained
B) use at least 3 groups for every geographic region involved
C) include groups of men only, women only, and men and women combined
D) the more homogeneous the groups, the more groups are needed
E) all of the above are true
41. All of the following statements about determining the number of group interviews is true except _____.
A) the broader the issue, the more groups needed
B) the larger the number of distinct market segments of interest, the more groups needed
C) the greater the level of detail, the more groups needed
D) the more homogeneous the market segment, the more groups needed
E) the larger the number of new ideas desired, the more groups needed
42. The focus group moderator uses the principles of _____ to focus the group in an exchange of ideas, feelings, and experiences on a specific topic.
A) psychology
B) sociology
C) anthropology
D) group dynamics
E) communications
43. What is the typical length of a focus group?
A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 90 minutes
D) 2 hours
E) 4 hours
44. A telephone focus group is a viable alternative to a traditional focus group when _____.
A) participants need to handle a product
B) it is difficult to recruit desired participants
C) sessions will run long
D) participants are groups of children
E) all of the above
45. Focus groups should not be used when _____.
A) facing a high-risk decision
B) stimulating new ideas for products
C) obtaining general background about a topic
D) uncovering perceptions about a brand
E) diagnosing problems
46. The process for measuring semantic content of a communication to develop a qualitative picture of the respondents' concerns, ideas, attitudes, and feelings is called _____.
A) brand mapping
B) component sorts
C) ethnographic interpretation
D) word association
E) content analysis
47. The objective of a(n) _____ is to obtain multiple perspectives of a single organization, situation, event, or process at a point in time or over a period of time.
A) life history
B) oral history
C) case history
D) cultural history
E) semantic map
48. Which type of research is designed to address complex, practical problems using brainstorming, followed by sequential trial-and-error attempts until the desired results are achieved?
A) case history
B) action research
C) causal research
D) grounded theory
E) ethnography
49. The minimum number of cases used in a cross-case analysis is _____ case(s).
A) one
B) three
C) four
D) fifteen
E) twenty-five
50. Which term below is used to describe the combining of several qualitative methods or combining qualitative with quantitative methods?
A) triangulation
B) dyadic support
C) inter-rater reliability
D) projection
E) component sorts
Essay Questions
51. How can researchers increase the confidence business decision makers have in qualitative data?
Level: difficult
52. Explain the three types of nonprobability sampling techniques commonly used to select samples for qualitative research studies.
Level: moderate
53. What are some of the responsibilities of interviewers aside from conducting the actual interviews? Name five of these responsibilities.
Level: moderate
54. List and explain the factors affecting the decision of how many focus groups are needed in a qualitative research project.
Level: moderate