During a heated discussion at a profession conference some years back, a distinguished Texas historian quipped, "Texans were entirely justified in declaring their independence from Mexico in 1836. No less justified was the annexation of Texas by the US in 1845. Since Independence in 1821, Mexico had lost the right to govern Texas and its people, and the right to demand their obedience to the central government in Mexico City."
Do you agree with this historians assessment? To answer, discuss:
1. how first Spain and then Mexico came to confront the US, especially over the possession of Texas, in what finally became the American Southwest
2.The causes and process of Anglo American immigration to Texas in the 1820s and 1830s.
3. the Mexican response to the challeneges of Anglo immigrants and their society in Texas
4. the causes of Anglo Texan political rebellion, the failed Mexican respponse, and ultimately the US annexation of Texas. The heart of your answer should grapple with why Mexico was unable to control or eliminate the Anglo immigrant challene to its sovereignty in texas and why the US was able to extend it sovereignty over the contested state.