Does aggregate demand model support bernanke-s thesis
In the article "A Perspective on Inflation Targeting", Ben Bernanke argues that the depth of the 1973-75 recession was caused only in part by increases in oil prices per se. Does the aggregate demand-aggregate supply model support Bernanke's thesis?
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The 1973-75 recession was caused only in part by increases in oil prices per se. Does the aggregate demand-aggregate supply model support Bernanke's thesis?
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