Do nietzsche succeed in defending older model of family


Assignment task: The following passage appears in section 39 of Expeditions of an Untimely Man, in F. Nietzsche's Twilight of the Idols:

"Witness modern marriage.  It is obvious that all sense has gone out of modern marriage: which is, however, no objection to marriage but to modernity.  The rationale of marriage lay in the legal sole responsibility of the man: marriage thereby had a centre of gravity, whereas now it limps with both legs.  The rationale of marriage lay in its indissolubility in principle: it thereby acquired an accent which could make itself heard against the accidents of feeling, passion and the moment.  It lay likewise in the responsibility of the families for the selection of mates.  With the increasing indulgence of love matches one has simply eliminated the foundation of marriage, that alone which makes it an institution.  One never establishes an institution on the basis of an idiosyncrasy, one does not, as aforesaid, establish marriage on the basis of love  one establishes it on the basis of the sexual drive, the drive to own property (wife and child considered as property), the drive to dominate which continually organizes the smallest type of domain, the family, which needs children and heirs so as to retain, in a physiological sense as well, an achieved measure of power, influence, wealth, so as to prepare for protracted tasks, for a solidarity of instinct between the centuries."

How do the freedoms of members of individualistically organised families differ from the freedoms of members of collectivistically organised families?  In the above passage, does Nietzsche succeed in defending the older model of the family against "modern marriage"?  Justify your answers to these questions.

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