Describe how to signify that there are infinitely many prime


i) Use induction to prove that Reimann Sum from k=0 to n-1 Fk= Fn -2

ii) Illustrate that is there exists k and n such that m is a common divisor of Fk and Fn, then m should be equal to 1 or 2.

iii) Describe why in this case m can't be equal to 2, and hence m=1, therfore all pairs Fk and Fn should be relatively prime.

iv) describe why this signifies that there are infinitely many primes.

Request for Solution File

Ask an Expert for Answer!!
Mathematics: Describe how to signify that there are infinitely many prime
Reference No:- TGS0868216

Expected delivery within 24 Hours