Can there be objective or culturally neutral standards by


Philosophy Discussion

Can one say a universal act is wrong or evil even if the society in question accepts the practice, or would such a judgement be culturally biased? Can there be objective or culturally neutral standards by which to judge the moral rules of societies different from your own?

In one form or another of the "Golden Rule" can be found in almost all human cultures and societies throughout the world. Do you see this more as an actual rule, or a way of expressing the possibility of consequences? Why? Is Immanuel Kant's Moral Philosophy a form of the "Golden Rule?" Be specific, giving examples and illustrations.

Solution Preview :

Prepared by a verified Expert
Dissertation: Can there be objective or culturally neutral standards by
Reference No:- TGS02321023

Now Priced at $45 (50% Discount)

Recommended (91%)

Rated (4.3/5)