In 2011, a small electric motor manufacturing company has 10 mm in interest bearing liabilities and 10 mm in stock holders equity. It generated 4.3 mm in operating income in 2011. Using a tax rate of 30% calculate the ROIC for the software company. Why is this metric many times more useful than ROE? The company decides to embark on a major five year expansionary capital expenditure plan financed with debt. Its WACC is estimated to be 12.5%. In 2016, its ROIC is 12.75%. Was the major expansion the right idea, assuming no major change in underlying fundamentals outside of the investment plan?