Are ordinary dividends affected in any way


Response to the following problem:

Is it possible for a firm to pass (miss) dividends on preference shares, even if it earns enough to pay them? Explain. What usually happens when a company passes a dividend on a cumulative preference share? Are ordinary dividends affected in any way?

If possible, please give examples to better understand your response.

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Financial Accounting: Are ordinary dividends affected in any way
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