Functional relationship between no arbitrage values
Let C(K)denote a European vanilla Call option with strike price K. Assume that all options are identical except for strike price, and strike prices satisfy K1
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Derive the functional relationship between the no arbitrage values of the two vertical spreads, C(K1)-C(K2) and C(K2)-C(K3)?
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Explain why the NPV of a relatively long-term project, defined as one for which a high percentage of its cash flows are expected in the distant future.
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