Multiple Choice Questions
1. By 1750, ______ , often criminals themselves were motivated by reward money and their ability to confiscate the possessions of the criminal.
a. thief-takers
b. vagabonds
c. crooks
d. watchmen
2. ______ is considered to be the father of the modern police detective.
a. Sir Robert Peel
b. August Vollmer
c. John Fielding
d. Leone Lattes
3. ______ was a term for the English police used in reference to Robert Peel and was a term of respect and appreciation.
a. Peels
b. Bobbies
c. Robbies
d. Boppies
4. The ______ was created in 1789 with the passage of the first judiciary act and claims to be the oldest federal law enforcement agency.
a. Secret Service
b. Postal Inspection Service
c. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
d. Marshal's Service
5. The ______ can trace its roots back to 1830 with the creation of the Office of Instructions and Mail Depredations.
a. Secret Service
b. Postal Inspection Service
c. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
d. Marshal's Service
6. The first major expansion of the FBI came in 1910 when the agency became responsible for the enforcement of the ______, which prohibited the transportation of women over state line for immoral purposes.
a. Mann Act
b. Women and Children Protection Act
c. Sabotage Act
d. None of the above.
7. In 1982 Congress passed the Anti-Arson Act declaring that arson is a federal crime and gave the ______ the responsibility for investigation of commercial arson nationwide.
a. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
b. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF)
c. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
d. Secret Service
8. ______ was responsible for bringing down Chicago's organized-crime king, Al Capone, on tax evasion charges.
a. Edgar Hoover
b. Alec Jeffreys
c. Eliot Ness
d. Albert S. Osborn
9. The connection between a fact offered as evidence and the issue to be proved is known as ______.
a. relevance
b. probable cause
c. connection
d. None of the above.
10. The application for a search warrant must be supported by ______ as required by the Fourth Amendment.
a. oath
b. affirmation
c. at least two peers
d. a and b only.
11. The ______ exception permits investigators to seize evidence without a warrant if the officer is lawfully in a position to plainly see an incriminating object of evidence.
a. open view
b. plain view
c. broad view
d. closed
12. Which of the following is protected by the Fourth Amendment?
a. homes
b. paper
c. curtilage
d. All of the above.
13. Arrest warrants are valid ______.
a. for 30 days
b. for 10 days
c. until they are recalled by the court
d. only if an officer has it on hand during the arrest
14. The territorial jurisdiction in which the alleged crime happened.
a. venue
b. crime scene
c. boundary
d. plain view
15. A person can waive constitutionally provided protections against unreasonable searches and seizures and allow an investigator to search home, person, and property. Such a search is known as ______.
a. search incident to an arrest
b. plain view search
c. stop and frisk
d. consent search
16. When a wanted fugitive is apprehended in another state, the fugitive has a right to a legal hearing in which the prosecution must demonstrate the probable cause for the return of the fugitive to the state where the crime occurred. These proceedings are known as ______.
a. exculpatory
b. extrajudicials
c. extraditions
d. extra jurisdictionals
17. ______of the crime scene includes the arrest of any suspects and the elimination of any hazards that might present a threat.
a. Containment
b. Neutralization
c. Lockdown
d. Wrap up
18. Requiring a suspect to give handwritten exemplars is not considered to be a request for communications that fall within the protection of the ______ Amendment.
a. First
b. Second
c. Fourth
d. Fifth
19. Witnesses who discuss their testimony with each other tend to adopt some of the other witnesses' testimony as their own. This process is normal and is known as ______ interference.
a. retroactive
b. proactive
c. mutual
d. combined
20. ______photography is excellent for studying crimes committed in a series.
a. Micro
b. Portrait
c. Aerial
d. None of the above.
21. A(n) ______ witness program seeks witness cooperation in exchange for confidentiality.
a. anonymous
b. John Doe
c. protective
d. silent
22. ______is a request by the defense counsel for the prosecution to disclose the evidence against the defendant before trial.
a. Discovery
b. Sneak peak
c. Abstract
d. Foresight
23. These marks on the inside of a gun barrel spin the bullet so it flies straight.
a. riflings
b. breech marks
c. land marks
d. calibers
24. Blood drop size increases with the ______of the fall.
a. direction
b. speed
c. distance
d. None of these.
25. What are tire tracks or footprints left in snow or soft dirt called?
a. impressions
b. imprints
c. trace evidence
d. plastic prints
26. These are markings left on a surface by protruding parts of a person or vehicle.
a. imprints
b. impressions
c. scratches
d. bruises
27. What is the term for fingerprints that usually cannot be seen with the naked eye and must be developed to be seen?
a. contaminated fingerprints
b. plastic fingerprints
c. fingerprint impressions
d. latent fingerprints
28. The question of whether a suicide victim or a homicide suspect recently fired a handgun can be answered through which laboratory examination?
a. ballistics examination
b. hydrodynamics
c. gun shot residue examination
d. forensic reaction
29. What basic lead has a high suggestibility factor?
a. photos of known criminals shown to eyewitnesses as possible suspects
b. an injured suspect seeking aid at a hospital for an injury
c. description of the vehicle used in the crime
d. opportunity
30. In cases in which the identity of the perpetrator is unknown, the initial objective of an investigation is to ______.
a. develop suspects
b. corroborate the statements of victim and/ or witnesses
c. probe the background of the victim(s)
d. None of these.
31. Mutual trust, compatibility, and ______ are the usual factors determining crime partners.
a. race
b. sex
c. skill/abilities
d. gender
32. Which is most likely to be a surveillance activity?
a. electronic eavesdropping
b. examination of subject/suspects garbage
c. use of lineup
d. robot (automatic) cameras
33. The public rejection of electronic eavesdropping most likely originates in ______.
a. a fear of disclosure of hidden crimes
b. aversion to an invasion of privacy
c. a lack of knowledge of electronics
d. the opinion that it is a useless
34. The "core area" of police intelligence process is ______.
a. review
b. analysis-interpretation
c. dissemination
d. collection
35. About ______ of all law enforcement interviews are informal and take place outside of an office setting.
a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 60%
d. 80%
36. A(n) ______ is a person-to-person conversation for the purpose of obtaining information about a crime or its circumstances.
a. interrogation
b. rapport
c. interview
d. judgement
37. According to the text, traditional methods of detecting deception during interviews only work about ______of the time.
a. 20%
b. 35%
c. 45%
d. 50%
38. According to the text, people's eyes will usually ______ when they are creating something in their mind.
a. move to the right
b. move to the left
c. look up
d. look down
39. The use of ______ is a relatively new phenomenon in criminal investigations.
a. interrogations
b. hypnosis
c. polygraph tests
d. psychics
40. In the case of ______, the defendant was continuously whipped with a belt until he confessed.
a. Townsend v. Sain
b. Brown v. Mississippi
c. Davis v. North Carolina
d. Miranda v. Arizona
41. When the victim was last known to be alive to when the victim was found dead is the time period known as the ______of death.
a. span
b. time
c. window
d. segment
42. The ______ serial killer is propelled to kill by voices he hears or visions he sees.
a. visionary
b. mission
c. hallucinatory
d. hedonistic
43. ______ offenders are inadequate individuals who are experiencing intense sadistic sexual fantasies and may suddenly act out these fantasies on a victim of opportunity.
a. Organized
b. Disorganized
c. Spree
d. Orderly
44. According to the text, ______is closely aligned with the triangle-killing situation; the victim is eliminated to gain some benefit.
a. anger killing
b. murder-suicide
c. random killing
d. murder for profit
45. When an individual, working alone or with another, commits multiple homicides over a period of time with time breaks between each murder event.
a. mass murder
b. serial murder
c. spree murder
d. mission murder
46. A classic medical symptom associated with ______ is retinal hemorrhage.
a. SIDS
b. Munchausen syndrome
c. Munchausen syndrome by proxy
d. shaken baby syndrome
47. When the identity of the rapist in unknown, the focus of a follow-up interview of a victim of forcible rape should be on______.
a. suspects with access to the scene of the rape
b. victim's recall of the circumstances of the rape
c. connect-ups with prior "similars"
d. aiding the victim
48. The initial task of the police upon receipt of a report of a forcible rape which has just occurred is to ______.
a. secure the crime scene
b. interview the victim
c. aid the victim
d. broadcast an alarm for the suspect
49. Of the various types of rapist profiles that have been identified, which one actually gets sexual gratification from his acts?
a. anger rapist
b. power rapist
c. sadistic rapist
d. All of the above.
50. This type of child molester is potentially most dangerous to children.
a. love hawk type of offender
b. regressive sex offender
c. situational offender
d. preferential offender
51. This is the purpose of the initial interview of the victim of a rape.
a. determine if the victim is falsifying the information
b. get information for a radio-broadcast alarm
c. demonstrate to the victim you are in charge and there to help
d. determine the identity of any witnesses
52. The type of rapist who may express a desire to see his victim again is classified as what?
a. anger rapist
b. power rapist
c. sadistic rapist
d. None of the above.
53. Some robberies have "signature" aspects which are part of the ______.
a. essential elements of the crime
b. motivation or why the crime was committed
c. corpus delicti
d. modus operandi
54. What "style" of robbery is the armed robbery of a convenience store?
a. an ambush
b. a raid
c. a planned operation
d. a strong arm
55. A crime partner in an armed robbery assigned the job of fighting off police who may chance on the scene or suddenly appear in response to a silent alarm is called the ______.
a. wheel man/women
b. "finger" man/women
c. back-up person
d. casing person
56. The main thrust of a robbery investigation is prompt response to the scene and ______.
a. fast-breaking search for the robber(s)
b. connect-ups
c. identifying "target" classification involved
d. determining means of escape from the scene
57. The ______ robbery is carefully structured; the robbery group examines all aspects of the situation and plans for all foreseeable contingencies and may engage in practice runs.
a. ambush
b. spontaneous
c. planned-operation
d. selective-raid
58. A ______ robber will enter the premises and appraise its vulnerability within a few minutes of shopping or browsing and then make a decision whether or not to rob the business.
a. career
b. cruising
c. backup
d. silent
59. This is least likely to be a common motivator for a hate fire.
a. spite
b. anger
c. some irrational motivation
d. antagonism
60. What is the primary objective of an arson investigator in reconstructing the origin and spread of suspicious fires?
a. to establish the limits of the fire scene
b. to develop a theory of the fire
c. to develop suspects with opportunity
d. to establish who will benefit from the fire
61. This is possibly the most important factor in closing a bombing case.
a. taggants
b. police intelligence reports
c. pattern of explosion
d. fire spread
62. The color of the smoke and flames is important in arson cases because they may indicate ______.
a. use of accelerants
b. inverted conical shape of a fire
c. use of mechanical fire-setting devices
d. use of "trailers"
63. What are coded microparticles that survive detonation of a bombing and aid an investigator in determining when and where the explosives were made?
a. trailers
b. accelerants
c. coded cones
d. taggants
64. A fire which is intentionally set as a result of some real or imagined dispute is grouped into which category of fires?
a. profit motivated
b. hate motivated
c. obsessional motivated
d. irresistible impulse motivated
65. This is the "Achilles' heel" of thieves.
a. use of tools
b. modus operandi searches and identification
c. transfer of associative evidence
d. disposing of the stolen property
66. What is a common swindle in which the victims are tricked into withdrawing money from a bank to show financial responsibility as a prerequisite to sharing in money found by one of the swindlers?
a. charity switch
b. pigeon drop
c. pay off
d. bank examiner fraud
67. The burglary technique in which the top, bottom, or sides of a safe are attacked with a chisel or other metal-cutting device is known as ______.
a. punching
b. pulling
c. peeling
d. ripping
68. What is the conversion of another's property over which the thief has custody or control?
a. confidence swindle
b. embezzlement
c. continual theft
d. misrepresentation
69. Which is not a step in the behavior cycle of burglars?
a. needs
b. opportunities
c. the ability to dispose of loot successfully
d. means
70. ______ have opened up new horizons for proactive and reactive investigations of consumer fraud because an investigator can begin developing a fraud case when unnecessary repairs are recommended.
a. Ponzi schemes
b. Advanced fees
c. Decoy appliances/vehicles
d. Accomplice-witnesses
71. This usually predates an application for a search warrant in drug-selling investigations.
a. surveillance
b. "buy"
c. interrogation
d. raid
72. In order to successfully prosecute someone for the illegal possession of dangerous drugs the prosecution must demonstrate dominion and control as well as ______.
a. knowledge of the character of the substance
b. criminal conspiracy
c. a criminal act in furtherance of the commission of the crime
d. opportunity
73. What are amateur chemists who operate clandestine laboratories and manufacture illegal drugs called?
a. cookies
b. cookers
c. chokers
d. crackers
74. Narcotics have four main characteristics, one of which is their analgesic effect. What effects do analgesics have on the users of these drugs?
a. drowsiness
b. pain relief
c. a feeling of well-being and tranquility
d. dependency
75. Amphetamine and methamphetamine use produces effects similar to this.
a. heroin
b. cocaine
c. phencyclidine
d. LSD
76. In cases involving a small quantity of drugs, the defendant may claim that he or she was ______(the illicit drugs were planted by the arresting officer or his informant partner).
a. flaked
b. raided
c. distracted
d. None of the above.
77. Antisocial misfits who intrude into another's computer system for the challenge involved in overcoming the system's defenses is known as what type of hacker?
a. cracker
b. computer criminal
c. vandal
d. black hat
78. What is a complex computer scheme in which the programmer steals small amounts from numerous accounts?
a. Trojan horse
b. worm
c. salami fraud
d. a come around fraud
79. Public morals laws are usually aggressively enforced in a community only when ______.
a. a complaint is made
b. another crime is involved
c. an allegation of police misconduct is involved
d. an allegation of police corruption is involved
80. This characteristic most distinguishes the crime syndicate.
a. unity of action
b. corruption
c. death to the informant
d. presence of weak and foolish public officials
81. ______ are people who take illegal bets on sporting events.
a. Rookies
b. Bookies
c. Sealers
d. Dealers
82. Asian criminal organizations, called ______, concentrate on extortion of local illegal gambling as well as legitimate business owners.
a. clans
b. posses
c. tongs
d. brotherhoods
83. According to the text, physical assaults such as ______ was a technique developed by the Irish Republican Army to cripple rather than kill. A person in such a condition sends a strong visual message and thus becomes an example to others of the terrorist group's power and the cost of informing on them.
a. kneecapping
b. punching
c. biting
d. dislocating elbows
84. Vandalism is a crime of choice for ______ who are dedicated to destroying industries perceived to have a negative effect on the environment.
a. arsonists
b. narcoterrorists
c. ecoterrorists
d. robbers
85. The beginnings of the ______ can be traced back to 1865 in Pulaski, Tennessee, when a small group of Confederate veterans gathered together to form a social club.
a. Knight's Templar
b. Earth Liberation Front
c. Pure Brotherhood
d. Ku Klux Klan
86. In 1985, William Pierce, a white supremacist, wrote a novel under the pseudonym of Andrew MacDonald, titled ______, which is a fictionalized account of an international white revolution and a how-to manual for terrorism.
a. World Anecdote
b. The Turner Diaries
c. Path to Salvation
d. Guide to World Order
87. The holy warriors known as the ______ were formed to fight against the invasion of Afghanistan by the former Soviet Union.
a. mujahedeen
b. jihadist
c. pilgrim
d. None of the above.
88. When Israel invaded Lebanon in 1982, Iran responded by sending its Revolutionary Guards to Lebanon, which led to the creation of a new terrorist network called ______.
a. Hizbollah
b. Al Qaeda
c. Hamas
d. dar al-Islam
89. Many Arabs believe that the entire Middle East should be united under one great Arabic banner, from North Africa to the Iranian border, known as ______.
a. Hizbollah
b. Al Qaeda
c. Hamas
d. dar al-Islam
90. ______agents include choking gases, blister agents, and nerve agents.
a. Nuclear
b. Biological
c. Chemical
d. None of the above.
91. Investigators should meet and confer with the assigned prosecutor prior to their court appearance to discuss the investigator's testimony. Such meetings can be criticized by the defense counsel as being ______.
a. one sided
b. within the realm of the discovery process
c. inappropriate plotting
d. a coaching session
92. This person asks the investigator-witness to respond to "open-ended" questions.
a. defense counsel
b. prosecutor
c. judge
d. defendant
93. This is the most important thing an investigator-witness can do immediately after testifying.
a. impartially examine their performance
b. stop and congratulate the prosecutor
c. gracefully leave the courtroom
d. discuss their testimony with others while waiting outside the courtroom
94. Law enforcement ethics involve two distinguishable topics:
a. misconduct and corruption
b. malfeasance and concealment
c. misfeasance and complacency
d. misstatement and coercion
95. What is the most likely definition for the term "ethical awareness."
a. knowing who is, and who is not, an ethical investigator
b. the acknowledgement of the existence of unethical conduct
c. the result of job specific ethical training
d. the result of supervisor/leadership behavior modification
96. The first questioning of a witness is conducted by the party calling the witness to testify and is called ______.
a. direct examination
b. indirect examination
c. cross-examination
d. indirect cross-examination
97. The growth of ethical awareness among criminal investigators as a professional group includes obligations to fellow investigators as a community. These obligations are best described as a basic responsibility to ______.
a. defined by the "umbrella" code of ethics
b. conform to prevailing practices
c. being a "reasonable person"
d. obeying a supervisor
98. One effect of unethical police conduct is known as jury nullification, which is best described as the ______.
a. unwillingness of citizens to serve on juries in criminal trials
b. sense of uneasiness investigators experience when testifying before a jury
c. juries' verdict being influenced by the mistrust of police witnesses.
d. jury sequestration
99. The progression of a compromised officer is predictable and, therefore, ______.
a. concerning
b. troubling
c. acceptable
d. preventable
100. An officer's misuse of his or her police authority for personal gain is known as ______.
a. corruption
b. misconduct
c. ethical awareness
d. unethical behavior