When comparing these labor supplies, which are clear by the income effect of a modification in wage rates is: (w) negative for Morgan and positive for Chandra. (x) less powerful than substitution effect for both of such workers. (y) positive for Morgan and negative for Chandra. (z) larger, relative to the substitution effect, for Morgan than this is for Chandra.
Can anybody suggest me the proper explanation for given problem regarding Economics generally?