1. The fundamental set of assumptions, values, and ways of doing things, that has been accepted by most of a company's members is called its:
a. culture.
b. environment.
c. atmosphere.
d. values.
2. Business processes:
a. include informal work practices.
b. are used primarily for sales and accounting functions.
c. are governed by information technology.
d. are logically related tasks used primarily by operational personnel.
3. Data management technology consists of:
a. the physical hardware and media used by an organization for storing data.
b. the detailed, pre-programmed instructions that control and coordinate the computer hardware components in an information system.
c. the software governing the organization of data on physical storage media.
d. the hardware and software used to transfer data.
4. The hardware and software used to transfer data in an organization is called:
a. data management technology.
b. networking and data management technology.
c. data and telecommunications technology.
d. networking and telecommunications technology.
5. An intranet uses:
a. mainframe technology.
b. infrared telecommunications systems.
c. the telecommunications capacities of fiber optic networks.
d. Internet technology within the boundaries of the firm.
6. The first step in the four-step model of business problem solving is:
a. agreeing that a problem exists.
b. identifying the problem.
c. outlining the problem's causes.
d. assigning the problem to a problem solver.
7. Inadequate database capacity is an example of the _______dimension of business problems.
a. technology
b. organizational
c. people
d. management
8. Legal and regulatory compliance is an example of the _______ dimension of business problems.
a. management
b. organizational
c. people
d. technology
9. The term "management information systems" designates a specific category of information systems serving:
a. integrated data processing throughout the firm.
b. transaction process reporting.
c. employees with online access to historical records.
d. middle management functions.
10. Management information systems support the:
a. long-range planning activities of senior management.
b. knowledge and data workers in an organization.
c. administrative activities of middle managers.
d. day-to-day processes of production.
11. These systems are designed to summarize and report on the company's basic operations.
a. Management information systems
b. Decision-support systems
c. Executive information systems
d. Transaction processing systems
12. ___________ support making decisions that are unique, rapidly changing, and not easily specified in advance:
a. Management information systems
b. Transaction processing systems
c. Executive support systems
d. Decision-support systems
13. Which type of system would you use to determine the five suppliers with the worst record in delivering goods on time?
a. ESS
b. TPS
c. MIS
d. DSS
14. These systems are especially suited to situations in which the procedure for arriving at a solution may not be fully predefined in advance.
a. Management information systems
b. Transaction processing systems
c. Decision-support systems
d. Knowledge management systems
15. Which type of system would you use to forecast the return on investment if you used new suppliers with better delivery track records?
a. ESS
b. TPS
c. MIS
d. DSS
16. Executive support systems are information systems that support the:
a. long-range planning activities of senior management.
b. knowledge and data workers in an organization.
c. decision-making and administrative activities of middle managers.
d. day-to-day processes of production.
17. The value chain model:
a. categorizes five related advantages for adding value to a firm's products or services.
b. sees the supply chain as the primary activity for adding value.
c. categorizes four basic strategies a firm can use to enhance its value chain.
d. helps a firm identify points at which information technology can most effectively to enhance its competitive position.
18. The primary activities of a firm include:
a. inbound logistics, operations, outbound logistics, sales and marketing, and service.
b. inbound logistics, operations, outbound logistics, technology, and service.
c. procurement, inbound logistics, operations, technology, and outbound logistics.
d. procurement, operations, technology, sales and marketing, and service.
19. The support activities of a firm include:
a. inbound logistics, technology, outbound logistics, sales and marketing, and service.
b. inbound logistics, organization infrastructure, outbound logistics, technology, and procurement.
c. organization infrastructure, human resources, sales and marketing, and technology.
d. organization infrastructure, human resources, technology, and procurement.
20. Benchmarking:
a. compares the efficiency and effectiveness of your business processes against strict standards.
b. allows industry participants to develop industry-wide standards.
c. is used to measure the speed and responsiveness of information technology.
d. synchronizes the business processes of customers, suppliers, and trading partners.
21. The most successful solutions or methods for achieving a business objective are called:
a. core processes.
b. best processes.
c. benchmarks.
d. best practices.
22. A firm's value chain is linked to the:
a. value webs of its industry.
b. value chains of its suppliers, distributors, and customers.
c. value webs of its suppliers and distributors.
d. value chains of its suppliers and customers.
23. A _______ is a collection of independent firms that use information technology to coordinate their value chains to produce a product or service for a market collectively.
a. value chain
b. business network
c. value web
d. consortia
24. How are information systems used at the industry level to achieve strategic advantage?
a. By building industry-wide, IT-supported consortia and symposia
b. By raising the bargaining power of suppliers
c. By encouraging the entry of new competitors
d. By enforcing standards that reduce the differences between competitors
25. When the output of some units can be used as inputs to other units, or if two organizations pool markets and expertise that result in lower costs and generate profits it is often referred to as creating:
a. value webs.
b. value chains.
c. synergies.
d. core competencies.
26. In batch processing:
a. transactions are processed immediately in batches.
b. transactions are accumulated in batches until it is time to process them.
c. transactions are processed by arrays of multiple, less expensive servers.
d. transactions are processed by arrays of multiple, less expensive workstations.
27. Batch systems often use:
a. tape storage.
b. optical storage.
c. SANs.
d. networked storage.
28. An example of technology convergence is:
a. virus protection software that runs and updates itself automatically.
b. software programmed to run on any hardware platform.
c. cell phones taking on the functions of handheld computers.
d. programming languages that allow non-programmers to create custom applications.
29. An example of autonomic computing is:
a. virus protection software that runs and updates itself automatically.
b. software programmed to run on any hardware platform.
c. cell phones taking on the functions of handheld computers.
d. programming languages that allow non-programmers to create custom applications.
30. An industry-wide effort to develop systems that can configure, optimize, tune, and heal themselves when broken, and protect themselves from outside intruders and self-destruction is called:
a. grid computing.
b. utility computing.
c. edge computing.
d. autonomic computing.
31. The components of edge computing are:
a. local client, ISP servers, and corporate enterprise servers.
b. local client, corporate Web servers, and corporate enterprise servers.
c. ISP servers, corporate Web servers, and corporate enterprise servers.
d. ISP servers, corporate enterprise servers, and Web servers.
32. Microsoft Excel is an example of:
a. Data management software.
b. Spreadsheet software.
c. Presentation graphics.
d. Word processing software.
33. A utility program:
a. performs common tasks such as copying.
b. coordinates requests between the operating system and applications.
c. allows platform-independent applications to run on any hardware.
d. converts programming language into machine language.
34. The interactive, multiuser operating system developed by Bell Laboratories in 1969 to be highly supportive of communications and networking is:
a. Unix
b. Linux
c. Mac OS
d. COBOL
35. The logical view of a database:
a. shows how data are organized and structured on the storage media.
b. presents an entry screen to the user.
c. allows the creation of supplementary reports.
d. presents data as they would be perceived by end users.
36. Examples of DBMS for midrange computers include all of the following except:
a. DB2.
b. Oracle.
c. Microsoft SQL Server.
d. Microsoft Access.
37. Oracle Database Lite is a:
a. DBMS for small handheld computing devices.
b. popular open-source DBMS.
c. Mainframe relational DBMS.
d. DBMS for midrange computers.
38. Access is a:
a. DBMS for small handheld computing devices.
b. popular open-source DBMS.
c. DBMS for midrange computers.
d. DBMS for desktop systems.
39. MySQL is a:
a. DBMS for small handheld computing devices.
b. popular open-source DBMS.
c. mainframe relational DBMS.
d. DBMS for desktop systems.
40. Microsoft SQL Server is a(n):
a. DBMS for small handheld computing devices.
b. Internet DBMS.
c. Desktop relational DBMS.
d. DBMS for midrange computers.
41. In a relational database, the three basic operations used to develop useful sets of data are:
a. select, project, and where.
b. select, join, and where.
c. select, project, and join.
d. select, from, and join.
42. The select operation:
a. combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available.
b. creates a subset consisting of columns in a table.
c. identifies the table from which the columns will be selected.
d. creates a subset consisting of all records in the file that meets stated criteria.
43. The join operation:
a. combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available.
b. identifies the table from which the columns will be selected.
c. creates a subset consisting of columns in a table.
d. organizes elements into segments.
44. Bandwidth is the:
a. number of frequencies that can be broadcast through a medium.
b. number of cycles per second that can be sent through a medium.
c. difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that can be accommodated on a single channel.
d. total number of bytes that can be sent through a medium per second.
45. The total amount of digital information that can be transmitted through any telecommunications medium is measured in:
a. bps.
b. Hertz.
c. baud.
d. gigaflops.
46. Digital subscriber lines:
a. operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video.
b. operate over coaxial lines to deliver Internet access.
c. are very-high-speed data lines typically leased from long-distance telephone companies.
d. have up to twenty-four 64-Kbps channels.
47. T lines:
a. operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video.
b. operate over coaxial lines to deliver Internet access.
c. are very-high-speed data lines typically leased from long-distance telephone companies.
d. have up to twenty-four 64-Kbps channels.
48. Which protocol is the Internet based on?
a. TCP/IP
b. FTP
c. Packet-switching
d. HTTP
49. What service converts IP addresses into more recognizable alphanumeric names?
a. HTML
b. DNS
c. IP
d. HTTP
50. The child domain of the root is the:
a. top-level domain
b. second-level domain
c. host name
d. domain extension
51. In the domain name "https://myspace.blogging.com", what are the root, top-level, second-level, and third-level domains, respectively?
a. "https://", myspace, blogging, com
b. "https://", com, blogging, myspace
c. ".", com, blogging, myspace
d. ".", myspace, blogging, com
52. Which organization helps define the overall structure of the Internet?
a. None (no one "owns" the Internet)
b. W3C
c. ICANN
d. IAB
53. Phishing is a form of:
a. spoofing.
b. spinning.
c. snooping.
d. sniffing.
54. Phishing involves:
a. setting up bogus Wi-Fi hot spots.
b. setting up fake Web sites to ask users for confidential information.
c. pretending to be a legitimate business's representative in order to garner information about a security system.
d. using e-mails for threats or harassment.
55. Pharming involves:
a. redirecting users to a fraudulent Web site even when the user has typed in the correct address in the Web browser.
b. pretending to be a legitimate business's representative in order to garner information about a security system.
c. setting up fake Web sites to ask users for confidential information.
d. using e-mails for threats or harassment.
56. Evil twins are:
a. Trojan horses that appears to the user to be a legitimate commercial software application.
b. e-mail messages that mimic the e-mail messages of a legitimate business.
c. fraudulent Web sites that mimic a legitimate business's Web site.
d. bogus wireless networks that look legitimate to users.
57. Tricking employees to reveal their passwords by pretending to be a legitimate member of a company is called:
a. sniffing.
b. social engineering.
c. phishing.
d. pharming.
58. How do software vendors correct flaws in their software after it has been distributed?
a. Issue bug fixes.
b. Issue patches.
c. Re-release software.
d. Issue updated versions.
59. The HIPAA act of 1996:
a. requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
b. specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
c. imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
d. outlines medical security and privacy rules.
60. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act:
a. requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
b. specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
c. imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
d. outlines medical security and privacy rules.
61. Systems that enable a firm to generate demand forecasts for a product and to develop sourcing and manufacturing plans for that product best describes:
a. supply chain demand systems.
b. supply chain delivery systems.
c. supply chain planning systems.
d. supply chain execution systems.
62. Supply chain planning systems:
a. track the physical status of goods.
b. identify the transportation mode to use for product delivery.
c. track the financial information involving all parties.
d. track the status of orders.
63. This supply chain planning function determines how much product is needed to satisfy all customer demands.
a. Distribution management
b. Replenishment planning
c. Demand planning
d. Order planning
64. Systems to manage the flow of products through distribution centers and warehouses to ensure that products are delivered to the right locations in the most efficient manner best describes:
a. supply chain demand systems.
b. supply chain delivery systems.
c. supply chain planning systems.
d. supply chain execution systems.
65. A supply chain driven by actual customer orders or purchases follows a:
a. pull-based model.
b. build-to-stock model.
c. push-based model.
d. replenishment-driven model.
66. Capabilities of supply chain planning systems would not include:
a. transport operations.
b. advanced scheduling and manufacturing planning.
c. demand planning.
d. order planning.
67. A build-to-order supply-chain model is also called a:
a. supply-driven model.
b. demand-driven model.
c. replenishment-driven model.
d. push-based model.
68. Concurrent supply chains are made possible by which technology?
a. Pull-based technology
b. Internet technology
c. Supply chain management systems
d. Just-in-time supply-chain technologies
69. Reducing the business process layers in a distribution channel is called:
a. disintermediation.
b. BPR.
c. market segmentation.
d. network effects.
70. Compared to digital markets, traditional markets have:
a. lower search costs.
b. stronger network effects.
c. higher delayed gratification effects.
d. higher transaction costs.
71. Digital goods are goods that are:
a. produced digitally.
b. sold over digital networks.
c. delivered digitally.
d. used with digital equipment.
72. Compared to traditional goods, digital goods have:
a greater pricing flexibility.
b. higher marketing costs.
c. lower production costs.
d. higher inventory costs.
73. Which of the following Internet business models does Amazon.com use?
a. Information broker
b. Transaction broker
c. Online marketplace
d. Virtual storefront
74. Which of the following businesses utilizes the content provider Internet business model?
a. Amazon.com
b. eBay.com
c. iTunes.com
d. Yahoo.com
75. Which of the following is an ad that opens automatically and does not disappear until the user clicks on it?
a. Pop-up ad
b. Controlled ad
c. Portal ad
d. Banner ad
76. Transaction brokers:
a. generate revenue from advertising or from directing buyers to sellers.
b. save users money and time by processing online sales dealings.
c. provide a digital environment where buyers and sellers can establish prices for products.
d. sell physical products directly to consumers or individual businesses.
77. Online marketplaces:
a. save users money and time by processing online sales dealings.
b. provide a digital environment where buyers and sellers can establish prices for products.
c. create revenue by providing digital content over the Web.
d. sell physical products directly to consumers or individual businesses.
78. Based on your reading, which of the four generic business strategies is eBay implementing to combat the slowing of sales growth?
a. Low-cost leadership
b. Product differentiation
c. Focus on market niche
d. Strengthening customer and supplier intimacy
79. The components of a DSS are the:
a. database, data query language, and user interface.
b. data visualization tools, software, and graphics capabilities.
c. database, data mining tools, and analysis tools.
d. user interface, software system, and database.
80. Which type of model is used to help managers estimate future conditions and sales figures resulting from these conditions?
a. Forecasting
b. Predictive
c. Statistical
d. Sensitivity analysis
81. Optimization models are often used to:
a. project future conditions and predict the effect of these conditions on sales.
b. determine the proper mix of products within a given market to maximize profits.
c. determine the price of a product given fluctuating sales and advertising budget.
d. establish the best relationship between price and sales and marketing budgets.
82. What type of model asks what-if questions repeatedly to determine the impact on outcomes of changes in one or more factors?
a. Optimization
b. Sensitivity analysis
c. Goal seeking
d. Forecasting
83. Backward sensitivity analysis software is used for:
a. supply chain optimization.
b. historical what-if analysis.
c. goal seeking.
d. reverse forecasting.
84. Which type of information system uses data visualization technology to analyze and display data for planning and decision making in the form of digitized maps?
a. GIS
b. DSS
c. GSS
d. TPS
85. GDSS are designed to:
a. allow meeting attendees to share their thoughts in real-time with their peers.
b. manage knowledge using a global perspective.
c. enable collaboration among geographically dispersed participants.
d. implement structured methods for organizing and evaluation ideas.
86. Automobile companies would implement a(n) _________ to allow Web site visitors to configure their desired car.
a. customer decision support (CDSS)
b. model-driven DSS
c. CAD system
d. GDSS
87. Which of the following are types of intelligent techniques?
a. Knowledge management systems
b. Expert systems
c. Computer-aided design
d. Sensitivity analysis
88. As a technical project manager you have decided to propose implementing a prototyping methodology for a small Web-based design project. What is the order of steps you will follow in this project?
a. Develop the prototype; use the prototype; revise and enhance the prototype
b. Identify user requirements, develop the prototype, use the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype
c. Define the requirements, develop solutions, select the best prototype, and implement the prototype
d. Define the requirements, develop the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype
89. When systems are created rapidly, without a formal development methodology:
a. end users can take over the work of IT specialists.
b. the organization quickly outgrows the new system.
c. hardware, software, and quality standards are less important.
d. testing and documentation may be inadequate.
90. Fourth-generation tools cannot replace conventional development tools because they:
a. cannot handle large numbers of transactions or extensive procedural logic.
b. are not designed to integrate with legacy systems.
c. do not incorporate methods for documentation.
d. do not incorporate methods for testing.
91. Management can control the development of end-user applications in part by:
a. developing a formal development methodology.
b. requiring cost justification for end-user IS projects.
c. establishing standards for project requirements.
d. requiring Gantt charts.
92. If an organization's requirements conflict with the software package chosen and the package cannot be customized, the organization will have to:
a. change its procedures.
b. outsource the development of the system.
c. redesign the RFP.
d. change the evaluation process.
93. "Hidden costs" such as _________ costs can easily undercut anticipated benefits from outsourcing.
a. vendor selection
b. hardware
c. software
d. employee salary
94. The process of creating workable information systems in a very short period of time is called:
a. RAD.
b. JAD.
c. prototyping.
d. end-user development.
95. This type of systems development is characterized by significantly speeding up the design phase and the generation of information requirements and involving users at an intense level.
a. RAD
b. JAD
c. Prototyping
d. End-user development
96. The term structured, when discussing structured methodologies, refers to the fact that:
a. the finished software is highly documented.
b. the development process is highly documented.
c. the techniques are step by step, with each step building on the previous one.
d. a defined hierarchy of objects and classes are used to structure the programming.
97. A colleague of yours frequently takes for his own personal use small amounts of office supplies, noting that the loss to the company is minimal. You counter that if everyone were to take the office supplies, the loss would no longer be minimal. Your rationale expresses which historical ethical principle?
a. Kant's Categorical Imperative
b. The Golden Rule
c. Risk Aversion Principle
d. The "No free lunch" rule
98. A classic ethical dilemma is the hypothetical case of a man stealing from a grocery store in order to feed his starving family. If you used the Utilitarian Principle to evaluate this situation, you might argue that:
a. stealing the food is acceptable, because the grocer suffers the least harm
b. stealing the food is acceptable, because the higher value is the survival of the family
c. stealing the food is wrong, because the man would not want the grocery to steal from him
d. stealing the food is wrong, because if everyone were to do this, the concept of personal property is defeated
99. Immanuel Kant's Categorical Imperative states that:
a. if an action cannot be taken repeatedly, then it is not right to be taken at any time.
b. one should take the action that produces the least harm or incurs the least cost.
c. one can put values in rank order and understand the consequences of various courses of action.
d. if an action is not right for everyone to take, it is not right for anyone to take.
100. The ethical "no free lunch" rule states that:
a. if an action cannot be taken repeatedly, then it is not right to be taken at any time
b. one should take the action that produces the least harm or incurs the least cost
c. one can put values in rank order and understand the consequences of various courses of action
d. everything is owned by someone else, and that the creator wants compensation for this work.