Problems related to mangement


Complete the mcq:

1. ________ develop pay grades and compensation plans.
a. Recruiters
b. Job analysts
c. Trainers
d. Compensation managers

2. ________ organize the training opportunities for a company.
a. Training specialists
b. EEO representatives
c. Change managers
d. Communication directors

3. The ________ HR group may provide specialized support for organizational change.
a. transactional
b. corporate
c. centers of expertise
d. embedded

4. The ________ HR group may work with benefits specialists to provide support for transactional HR activities.
a. compensation
b. corporate
c. embedded
d. transactional

5. ________ refers to the practices and policies you need to carry out the personnel aspects of your management job.
a. Labor Relations
b. Human Resource Management
c. Organizational Health and Safety Management
d. Organizational Behavior

6. Strategy map ________.
a. is the process of identifying countries with cheaper labor costs and relocating jobs to those countries
b. is the process of organizing work activities
c. provides an onverview of how each department's performance contributes to achieving the company's overall strategic goals
d. comprises the concepts and techniques used to control people at work

7. All of the following are a line supervisor's responsibilities for effective HRM except:
a. starting (orienting) new employees in the organization
b. coercing other supervisors to get with the program
c. controlling labor costs
d. developing the abilities of each person

8. ________ are specifically responsible for assisting and advising line managers in areas like recruiting, hiring, and compensation.
a. EEO officers
b. Human resource managers
c. Staff managers
d. Line managers

9. Effective human resource management could include all of the following responsibilities except:
a. controlling labor costs
b. placing the right person in the right job
c. training employees
d. None of the above.

10. Which of the following demographic issues represents a challenge for human resource managers?
a. aging workforce
b. increasingly diverse workforce
c. increasing use of contingent workers
d. a and b only

11. The proportion of younger workers in the workforce is projected to ________.
a. decrease at a faster rate
b. decrease
c. stop growing
d. increase at a slower rate

12. Strategic human resource management refers to ________.

a. extending a firm's sales, ownership, and manufacturing to new markets
b. emphasizing the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm's workers
c. formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee competencies and behaviors the company needs to achieve its strategic aims
d. planning the balance of internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats to maintain competitive advantage

13. Which term refers to letting vendors abroad provide services for a firm?
a. offshoring
b. data warehousing
c. application service providers
d. external work systems

14. HR managers who pass certification exams in human resource management are knowledgeable in all of the following aspects except:
a. information technology
b. employee and labor relations
c. strategic management
d. occupational health and safety

15. Of the ten most serious ethical issues, how many were HR related?
a. four
b. ten
c. six
d. seven

16. Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination based on all of the following characteristics except:
a. sexual orientation
b. color
c. religion
d. race

17. ________ made it unlawful to discriminate in pay on the basis of sex when jobs involve equal work, require equivalent skills, effort, and responsibility, and are performed under similar working conditions.
a. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
b. Equal Pay Act of 1963
c. Title VII
d. Executive Order 11246

18. Which of the following factors is not an acceptable basis for different pay for equal work under the Equal Pay Act of 1963?
a. seniority system
b. merit pay system
c. gender
d. quality of production

19. Jack is a 55-year-old American of Anglo-Saxon descent. What legislation is intended to protect Jack from discrimination?
a. Equal Pay Act of 1963
b. Title VII
c. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
d. Executive Order 11246

20. If a person is in a protected class, he or she is protected by ________.
a. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
b. the Consumer Protection Act
c. the Sarbanes-Oxley Act
d. the Department of Labor

21. Which of the following is not a potential source of sexual harassment?
a. customers
b. supervisors
c. co-workers
d. None of the above.

22. Under the Federal Agency Uniform guidelines, it may be ________ to discriminate against persons even within the 40+ age bracket.
a. unlawful
b. lawful
c. necessary
d. b and c only

23. In which of the following did the U.S. Supreme Court further clarify the law on sexual harassment?
a. Farragher v. City of Boca Raton
b. Griggs v. Duke Power
c. Burlington Industries v. Ellerth
d. a and c only

24. Intentional discrimination is also called ________.
a. adverse discrimination
b. disparate treatment
c. mixed motive
d. disparate impact

25. Which equal employment act allows the plaintiff to sue for punitive damages?
a. Americans with Disabilities Act
b. Title VII
c. Civil Rights Act of 1991
d. None of the above.

26. Which of the following is not a guideline arising out of Griggs v. Duke Power?
a. discrimination must have disparate impact only
b. job relatedness
c. discrimination need not be intentional
d. burden of proof on employer

27. Which of the following is not a way an employer can show reasonable care to defend against sexual harassment liability?
a. training employees in sexual harassment policies
b. investigating sexual harassment charges promptly
c. instituting a sexual harassment reporting process
d. All of the above are ways of showing reasonable care.

28. When harassment is of a serious nature, an employee can consider suing for ________.
a. assault and battery
b. compensatory and punitive damages
c. emotional distress
d. All of the above.

29. Under the Civil Rights Act of 1991, a discrimination claim must be filed within ________ after the alleged incident took place.
a. 300 days
b. six months
c. three years
d. one year

30. The information resulting from job analysis is used for writing ________.
a. performance standards
b. work activities
c. work aids
d. job descriptions

31. The framework for talent management includes ________.
a. using selection tools such as tests, interviews, and the like
b. building a pool of job candidates
c. deciding what positions to fill
d. All of the above.

32. Which of the following is not an advantage of using interviews to collect job analysis data?
a. Some information may be exaggerated or minimized.
b. It can identify uncommon but important activities.
c. It is simple to use.
d. It is quick to collect information.

33. For which of the following is direct observation not recommended to collect data used in a job analysis?

a. accounting clerk
b. design engineer
c. receptionist
d. assembly-line worker

34. Jane records every activity she participates in at work along with time in a log. This approach to data collection for job analysis is based on ________.
a. questionnaires
b. direct observation
c. diaries
d. interviews

35. The job specification takes the job description and answers the question:
a. What are the four main activities making up this job?
b. What human traits and experience are required to do this job well?
c. When will the supervisor be completely satisfied with a worker's work?
d. What are the performance standards for the job?

36. When managers need to determine which employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will use ________.
a. qualifications inventories
b. trend records
c. replacement charts

d. personnel files

37. Which of the following methods is not used to recruit outside candidates?
a. employment agencies
b. job postings
c. advertising
d. All of the above are used to recruit outside candidates.

38. Which of the following is not an advantage of using a private employment agency?
a. It may be faster than in-house recruiting.
b. Screening may not be as thorough.
c. It does not require internal recruitment specialists.
d. It may be better for attracting minority candidates.

39. Pamlico River Productions is seeking a top-level executive to serve in its finance division. Qualified candidates can be difficult to find because there is more demand than supply. Pamlico River Productions should consider using a(n) ________ for recruitment.
a. temporary agency
b. state-run employment agency
c. executive recruiter
d. Any of the above.

40. College recruiters typically seek to ________.
a. develop a pool of applicants for future screening
b. determine whether a candidate is worthy of further consideration
c. fill the position
d. cut costs for the firm by reducing the need for on-site interviews

41. One of the biggest challenges facing single parents in the job market is ________.
a. getting a sufficient salary
b. getting access to the Internet to search job sites
c. balancing work and family life
d. minimizing the commute to work

42. Which of the following could be perceived as discriminatory when asked on an employment application form?
a. race
b. age
c. religion
d. All of the above.

43. Which of the following is not a "big five" personality dimension?
a. conscientiousness
b. agreeableness
c. extroversion
d. inwardness

44. Which of the following is a commonly verified background area?
a. legal eligibility for employment
b. military service
c. dates of prior employment
d. All of the above.

45. Which of the following is an example of a reliable test?
a. one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better score on the same test taken on a different occasion
b. one that includes questions that are not repetitive in any way
c. one that yields different scores from two different people taking the test on different
occasions
d. one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test

46. ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers two tests deemed to be equivalent by experts and then compares the test scores from the two tests.
a. Equivalent form estimate
b. Criterion validity
c. Internal comparison estimate
d. Retest estimate

47. Which of the following describes using an internal comparison estimate to assess reliability?
a. administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together
b. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
c. administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people
d. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well

48. Which of the following tasks is not part of demonstrating content validity?
a. demonstrating that the scores on the test are a good predictor of criterion like job performance
b. demonstrating that the tasks on the test are a random sample of tasks performed on the job
c. demonstrating the conditions under which the person takes the test resembling the work situation
d. demonstrating that the tasks a person performs on the test represent the tasks performed on the job

49. ________ tests include tests of general reasoning ability and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning.
a. Achievement
b. Physical ability
c. Cognitive
d. Personality

50. Jack is being tested on static strength, dynamic strength, body coordination, and stamina during the selection period at UPS. UPS is using ________ tests.
a. achievement
b. motor and physical abilities
c. comprehensive
d. personality

51. ________ tests include tests like finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time.
a. Achievement
b. Interest
c. Motor ability
d. Personality

52. A ________ is a two or three-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's potential.
a. video-based situational testing
b. retreat
c. management assessment center
d. work sampling event

53. Which of the following is not usually verified by an employer prior to hiring a job candidate?
a. credit ratings
b. motor vehicle record
c. age
d. legal eligibility for employment

54. The fourth step in the training process is to ________.
a. conduct a needs analysis
b. assess the program's successes or failures
c. implement the program or course
d. present the program to a small test audience

55. ________ means having a person learn a job by actually doing it.
a. Social learning
b. Modeling
c. Practice
d. On-the-job training

56. Which form of on-the-job training usually involves having a learner study under the tutelage of a master craftsperson?
a. job instruction training
b. apprenticeship training
c. understudy training
d. programmed learning

57. Which of the following is not a step in behavioral modeling?
a. social reinforcement
b. modeling
c. role playing
d. All of the above are steps in behavioral modeling.

58. ________ allows people in one location to communicate live with people in another location.
a. Televising
b. Videoconferencing
c. Internet televising
d. Internet

59. ________ allows trainees to use a computer-based system to increase their knowledge and skills interactively.
a. Telelearning
b. Point-to-point training
c. Videoconferencing
d. Computer-based training

60. The ________ process includes improving the firm's future performance and making sense of things in terms of the firm's strategy and goals.
a. action planning
b. management development
c. management skills inventory
d. performance support

61. An outside consultant who questions an executive's boss, peers, subordinates, and family in order to determine weaknesses and strengths is a(n) ________.
a. executive coach
b. personality modifier
c. full time coach
d. None of the above.

62. ________ evaluates trainees as to whether they thought the training was worthwhile.
a. Reaction
b. Learning
c. Behavior
d. Results

63. ________ tests the trainees to determine whether they learned principles, skills, and facts.
a. Reaction
b. Learning
c. Behavior
d. Results

64. Besides the supervisor, which of the following is available to managers as an alternative source of performance appraisal information?
a. rating committees
b. the employee
c. peers
d. All of the above.

65. Which of the following is a valid appraisal source?
a. subordinates
b. self-ratings
c. 360-degree feedback
d. All of the above.

66. When a supervisor evaluates performance by assigning predetermined percentages of ratees into performance categories, he or she has used the ________ method of performance appraisal.
a. constant sum ranking scale
b. forced distribution
c. alternation ranking
d. paired comparison

67. All of the following are advantages of using the critical incident method for appraising performance except that:
a. incidents can be tied to performance goals
b. it provides examples of poor performance
c. it provides examples of good performance
d. it does not include a numerical rating

68. What is the fifth step in the Management by Objectives Method?
a. discuss departmental goals
b. define expected results
c. conduct performance reviews and measure the results
d. set departmental goals

69. One way of reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals is to
________.
a. rank employees
b. consider the purpose of the appraisal
c. train supervisors to avoid it
d. be aware of the problem

70. Peer appraisals have been shown to result in a ________.
a. decrease in satisfaction with the group
b. reduction of social loafing in the team
c. reduction of group cohesion
d. tendency to inaccurately predict who would be promoted

71. Firms that use ________ let subordinates anonymously rate their supervisor's performance.
a. narratives
b. upward feedback
c. critical incidents
d. downward feedback

72. What process allows top management to diagnose the management styles of supervisors, identify potential "people" problems, and take corrective action with individual supervisors as necessary?
a. critical incidents
b. upward feedback
c. strategic performance appraisal
d. organizational development

73. Career planning refers to the ________.
a. lifelong series of activities that contributes to a person's career exploration, establishment, success, and fulfillment
b. process through which someone becomes aware of personal skills, interests, knowledge, motivations; acquires information about opportunities; identifies career goals; and establishes action plans to attain those goals
c. occupational positions a person has over his or her lifetime
d. process of using activities like training and appraisal to provide a career focus

74. Which of the following is categorized as an indirect payment portion of employee compensation?
a. employer-paid insurance
b. bonuses
c. salaries
d. wages

75. ________ is a formal and systematic comparison of jobs to determine the worth of one job
relative to another.
a. Benchmark analysis
b. Job analysis
c. Job ranking
d. Job evaluation

76. ________ means collapsing salary grades and ranges into just a few wide levels or bands, each of which contains a relatively wide range of jobs and salary levels.
a. Job grading
b. Strategic compensation
c. Broadbanding
d. Comparable worth

77. According to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, if a company must restate financial statements due to material noncompliance with a financial reporting requirement, the act requires that the CEO ________.
a. make a public apology to stock holders
b. repay any bonuses received during the 12 months prior to the issuance of the
financial statements in question
c. resign from the position of CEO
d. All of the above.

78. Which profit-sharing plan provides tax advantages for the employer at fair market value?
a. ESOP
b. deferred profit-sharing plan
c. cash plan
d. Jefferson incentive system

79. Nonfinancial payments like health and life insurance, pensions, time off with pay, and child care facilities are examples of ________.
a. salary
b. benefits
c. competency-based incentives
d. variable pay

80. Which of the following is false regarding the application of the Family and Medical Leave Act?
a. No advance notice is necessary.
b. Up to 12 weeks must be granted in a twelve-month period.
c. To be eligible, an employee must have worked for the employer for at least twelve months.
d. To be eligible, an employee must have worked for a minimum of 1250 hours in the past twelve months.

81. ________ provide services like personal legal and financial counseling, child care referrals, elder care referrals, adoption assistance, mental health counseling, and life event planning.
a. Family-friendly benefits
b. Social Security programs
c. Pension plans
d. Employee Assistance Programs

82. The principles of conduct governing an individual or a group are referred to as ________.
a. judgments
b. laws
c. ethics
d. norms

83. With respect to rights and fairness, which one of the following is not true?
a. Laws like Title VII give employees various rights.
b. An increasingly litigious workforce is a reason to be fair.
c. Many societies correctly rely solely on managers' sense of fairness to ensure that they
do what is right by their employees.
d. Employees also have certain rights under common law.

84. Ethical behavior starts with ________.
a. moral ineptitude
b. morality
c. moral awareness
d. systemic cognitive biases

85. When an employee's dismissal does not comply with the law or with the contractual agreement stated or implied by the firm via its employment application forms, employee manuals, or other promises, ________ has occurred.
a. mutiny
b. emotional hardship
c. insubordination
d. wrongful discharge

86. The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act is also known as ________.
a. COBRA
b. ERISA
c. the plant closing law
d. the privacy law

87. What is the first step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?
a. plan the interview carefully
b. get to the point
c. describe the situation
d. listen

88. What is the sixth step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?
a. get to the point
b. describe the situation
c. listen
d. identify the next step

89. Which law gave employers the right to express their views concerning union organization?
a. Taft-Hartley Act
b. Landrum-Griffin Act
c. Norris-LaGuardia Act
d. Gompers Act

90. What is the first step in a union drive and election that seeks to be recognized as an employee representative?
a. making initial contact
b. obtaining authorization cards
c. holding a hearing
d. holding an election

91. The union becomes the employees' representative if it wins the election and winning means getting ________.
a. 30% of the employees to sign authorization cards
b. a majority of the total workers in the bargaining unit
c. a majority of votes cast and a majority of electoral votes
d. a majority of votes cast

92. Negotiators use all of the following types of third-party interventions to overcome an impasse except:
a. binding arbitration
b. picketing
c. nonbinding arbitration
d. mediation

93. Mediation to ________ is used by negotiators to end an impasse.
a. study the issue in a dispute
b. interpret existing contract terms
c. assist the principals in reaching an agreement
d. determine and dictate the settlement terms

94. Under which scenario must an employer rehire strikers who wish to be reinstated?
a. following wildcat strikes when the contract is still in place
b. following economic strikes if the negotiations were resolved
c. following sympathy strikes
d. following unfair labor practice strikes

95. When managers reduce unsafe acts through selection, it means that they ________.
a. respond to employee suggestions to improve possible problem areas
b. rotate employees through different positions
c. offer incentives to employee teams with low accident rates
d. identify a trait associated with work-place accidents and then screen candidates on this trait

96. Alcoholism among employees results in a(n) ________ in its later stages.
a. missed deadlines
b. increase in on-the-job absenteeism
c. increase in job satisfaction
d. decrease in off-the-job accident rate

97. Which of the following is one of the earliest indicators of possible alcoholism in an employee?
a. tardiness
b. avoidance of fellow employees
c. lying
d. domestic problems

98. Warnings from the boss for a possible alcoholism performance issue usually happens in which stage of alcoholism?
a. advanced
b. middle
c. early
d. lingering

99. Employees who wish to lower their job stress should follow all of the following suggestions except:
a. finding time every day for detachment and relaxation
b. putting off dealing with distasteful problems
c. creating realistic goals and deadlines for yourself, and set regular progress reviews
d. building pleasant, cooperative relationships with as many of your colleagues as you can

100. Of all females who were murdered at work, what percentage were killed by someone who was unknown to the victim?
a. 45
b. 35
c. 75
d. 25

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