Medical Law and Ethics Final Examination-
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Which definition most accurately describes applied ethics?
a. The legal application of moral standards that concern benefiting the public
b. The practical application of moral standards that are meant to benefit the patient
c. The legal application of moral standards that benefit the patient
d. The legal application of moral standards that are based on the sincerity of a person's beliefs
2. An example of utilitarianism might include:
a. a duty to provide healthcare to all Americans.
b. providing Medicare for only those who need medical coverage.
c. an organ for transplant going to the person needing it the most.
d. All of the above.
3. The purpose of medical professional organizations is to:
a. define the laws of the profession.
b. determine salaries and benefits for medical professionals.
c. punish medical professionals for breaking the law.
d. set ethical standards for practice within the profession.
4. Empathy requires the ability to:
a. feel sorry for someone else.
b. understand the feelings of another person.
c. feel a sense of commitment to a person.
d. have a distant and unemotional attitude toward the patient.
5. Due process in the workplace refers to:
a. the responsibility of employers to provide a safe work environment.
b. the right of all employers to certain procedures when their rights are in jeopardy.
c. the right of all employees to certain procedures when their rights are in jeopardy.
d. All of the above.
6. Extending equal pay requirements to all persons who are doing equal work is known as:
a. comparable worth.
b. cost/benefit analysis.
c. fidelity.
d. due process.
7. A three-step model developed by Kenneth Blanchard and Norman Vincent Peale is used to evaluate:
a. comparable worth.
b. alcoholism.
c. legal issues.
d. an ethical dilemma.
8. The best definition for ethics is:
a. emotional responses.
b. religious beliefs.
c. moral principles.
d. sincerity and feeling.
9. A branch of applied or practical ethics is called:
a. medical ethics.
b. biomedical ethics.
c. bioethics.
d. b and c only.
10. Bioethicists are:
a. specialists who give thought to ethical concerns as they pertain to medicine and medical research.
b. specialists in the field of medical law.
c. researchers in medical technology.
d. All of the above.
11. Intentional torts include:
a. false imprisonment.
b. defamation.
c. assault and battery.
d. All of the above.
12. Which is the best definition of libel?
a. making false and/or malicious statements about another person
b. attempts to deceive another person
c. speaking false and malicious words concerning another person, which brings injury to his or her reputation
d. any publication in print, writing, pictures, or signs that injures the reputation of another person
13. Failure or omission to perform professional duties to an accepted level is called:
a. negligence.
b. consideration.
c. fraud.
d. unintentional tort.
14. A contract between the patient and the physician can be terminated for:
a. failure to pay for services.
b. failure to follow instructions on the part of the patient.
c. missed appointments by the patient.
d. All of the above.
15. Which carries the punishment of fines or imprisonment in jail for up to a year?
a. negligence
b. a felony
c. battery
d. a misdemeanor
16. Which of the following is the lowest to highest division of the state courts?
a. municipal, circuit, supreme
b. circuit, municipal, supreme
c. municipal, supreme, circuit
d. supreme, circuit, municipal
17. The person being sued in a court of law is the:
a. defendant.
b. plaintiff.
c. litigator.
d. jury.
18. A court order for a witness and certain documents to appear in court is a:
a. deposition.
b. discovery.
c. subpoena duces tecum.
d. subpoena.
19. An expert witness is considered to have:
a. a legal background (for example, a lawyer).
b. knowledge of the crime committed.
c. knowledge or experience beyond the jury.
d. All of the above.
20. When testifying in court, it is important to:
a. tell the truth.
b. state the facts.
c. include your opinion.
d. a and b only.
21. Accreditation of allied health educational programs is provided by:
a. HIPAA.
b. JCAHO.
c. CAAHEP.
d. FLEX.
22. The provision of information to a patient that a reasonable person would want before making a decision about treatment is:
a. the statute of limitations.
b. confidentiality.
c. the standard of care.
d. the prudent person rule.
23. The period of time that a patient has to file a lawsuit is the:
a. medical practice acts.
b. statute of limitations.
c. statute of limitations for murder.
d. Medical Patients Rights Act.
24. "Let the master answer" refers to:
a. the physician who assists in an emergency situation outside the workplace.
b. the medical assistant who unsuccessfully performs CPR.
c. the employer who assumes responsibility for the actions of employees.
d. scope of practice.
25. The ultimate decision for healthcare rests with the:
a. physician.
b. licensed caregiver.
c. guardian ad !item.
d. insurance company.
26. A Medicare-instituted method of hospital payment is:
a. HMO.
b. EPO.
c. DRG.
d. PPO.
27. Those persons most likely to receive the best care under a managed care system are:
a. those who understand the system.
b. the wealthy.
c. the poor and ignorant.
d. All of the above.
28. Different methods of medical practice, such as partnerships and corporations, are the result of:
a. increased insurance coverage costs.
b. increased patient-initiated malpractice lawsuits.
c. a desire to better serve patients' needs.
d. All of the above.
29. An associate practice is a legal agreement in which the physicians:
a. share responsibility for legal actions of each other.
b. share a facility and staff.
c. share the loss and profits.
d. All of the above.
30. A medical practice consisting of three or more physicians who practice the same specialty and share expenses and income is a/an:
a. group practice.
b. associate practice.
c. corporation.
d. partnership.
31. The patient has a right to:
a. give informed consent for any treatment.
b. expect the appropriate standard of care.
c. deny any treatment.
d. All of the above.
32. A breach of confidentiality is considered unethical and illegal, and is prohibited by:
a. Medicare.
b. DRGs.
c. Medicaid.
d. HIPAA.
33. A statement of the patient's intentions for healthcare-related decisions is called:
a. consent.
b. an advance directive.
c. implied consent.
d. in loco parentis.
34. The authority of a healthcare agent to act on behalf of the patient:
a. continues even if the patient cancels it.
b. only includes the elderly.
c. continues even if the patient is physically or mentally incapacitated.
d. only includes minors.
35. The patient's signature on an informed consent form indicates:
a. understanding of the treatment options.
b. understanding of the limits or risks in the pending treatment.
c. expressed consent.
d. All of the above.
36. Exceptions to obtaining consent may include:
a. commonly known risks.
b. when a physician guarantees that the treatment will be successful.
c. when the physician does not want to tell the patient the outcome of the treatment.
d. when a cure is possible.
37. One of the best ways to prevent medical errors is for the patient to:
a. be a better informed consumer of medical services.
b. use herbal remedies before calling the physician.
c. sue the physician if he or she does not like the outcome of a procedure.
d. keep quiet and let the physician handle all aspects of the care.
38. When an employer lends an employee to someone else, this is called:
a. respondeat superior.
b. the borrowed servant doctrine.
c. comparative negligence.
d. fraud.
39. Deliberate concealment of the facts from a patient is:
a. contributory negligence.
b. fraud.
c. comparative negligence.
d. liability.
40. The legal relationship formed between two people when one person agrees to perform work for another person is called:
a. the law of agency.
b. liability.
c. the promise to cure.
d. All of the above.
41. Responsibility for action in employment is ultimately assigned to the:
a. employer.
b. agency.
c. employee.
d. supervisor.
42. Coverage of the insured party for all injuries and incidents that occurred while the policy was in effect, regardless of when they are reported, is:
a. malpractice insurance.
b. claims-made insurance.
c. occurrence insurance.
d. rider insurance.
43. Submitting a dispute to a person other than a judge is called:
a. liability.
b. arbitration.
c. arbitrator.
d. law of agency.
44. The only health professional who is not usually employed by the physician is the:
a. medical assistant.
b. radiology technician.
c. nurse.
d. pharmacist.
45. Evidence gathered in an abuse case may include:
a. urine specimens.
b. pictures of bruises or injuries.
c. clothing.
d. All of the above.
46. Conditions such as cancer, epilepsy, and congenital disorders of the newborn are often reported to government agencies in order to:
a. receive funding through Medicare.
b. prevent malpractice lawsuits.
c. maintain accurate public health statistics.
d. receive additional funding from insurance companies.
47. The purpose of the DEA is to:
a. regulate drug dealers.
b. keep physicians from prescribing controlled substances.
c. regulate the Controlled Substances Act of 1970.
d. ensure the safety of food items sold in the United States.
48. The proper method of destroying a controlled substance that needs to be "disposed of or wasted" is to:
a. flush it down a toilet as advised by the manufacturer.
b. return it to the original container to be counted.
c. place it in a locked container to be removed by the hazardous waste disposal personnel.
d. All of the above.
49. DEA registration numbers are available to:
a. medical assistants.
b. nurses.
c. pharmacists.
d. physicians.
50. A program of management-financed and confidential counseling and referral service designed to help employees and/or their family members assess a problem is the:
a. EAP.
b. DEA.
c. CSA.
d. FDA.
51. Hazardous medical waste includes:
a. solid waste from administration.
b. infectious waste from body fluid contact.
c. radioactive waste.
d. b and c only.
52. Through the Drug-Free Workplace Act, employers contracting to provide goods or services to the federal government must certify that:
a. a drug-free workplace is maintained.
b. employees will be notified of violations before termination.
c. employees may not use drugs off of the premises.
d. a drug support service is provided for employees.
53. The origin of the current unemployment insurance program for employees who are unable to work through no fault of their own is the:
a. Federal Insurance Contribution Act.
b. Social Security Act.
c. Fair Labor Standards Act.
d. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act.
54. A fine imposed by the federal government for employers not contributing to Social Security for their employees is mandated by the:
a. Employee Retirement Income Security Act.
b. Federal Insurance Contribution Act.
c. Equal Pay Act.
d. Workers' Compensation Act.
55. The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1994 allows:
a. the father to take a leave of absence of up to 12 weeks in any 12-month period when a baby is born.
b. unpaid medical leave for up to 12 weeks of leave for their own or a family member's medical or family related situation.
c. the mother to take a leave of absence of up to 12 weeks in any 12-month period when a baby is born.
d. All of the above.
56. The Fair Debt Collection Practices Act prohibits phone calls for the purpose of debt collection:
a. except on the weekends.
b. after 8:00 A.M.
c. before 8:00 A.M.
d. after 7:00 P.M.
57. Under the Family and Medical Leave Act, the employee:
a. may have some loss of employment benefits when he or she returns.
b. must have worked for the employer for 6 months to be eligible.
c. must be returned to the same or equivalent position when he or she returns.
d. All of the above.
58. An unfair dislike or preference against someone is called:
a. autonomy.
b. bias.
c. ethnocentrism.
d. stereotyping.
59. When preparing a copy of a medical record for a third party:
a. keep the copy and send the original.
b. keep the original and send a copy.
c. make two copies and send the original.
d. make a copy of the complete record and send it even when one part is requested.
60. Medical records are usually exempt from state open-record laws except when:
a. an attorney requests the records to be made public.
b. mental health records are to be disclosed to the public.
c. the benefit of disclosure for the public interest (safety) outweighs confidentiality.
d. requested by a family member to be disclosed to the public.
61. Older records of former patients:
a. can be destroyed after 5 years.
b. need to be kept in the physician's office indefinitely.
c. need to be kept in the physician's office for at least 7 years.
d. can be stored in a clean, dry storage space.
62. Confidential medical record information that can be disclosed to a health department without the patient's consent includes:
a. AIDS cases.
b. HIV cases.
c. abortions.
d. a and b only.
63. Laws regarding medical records:
a. apply to individual healthcare facilities.
b. are mandated by the federal government.
c. are the same from state to state.
d. vary from state to state.
64. Immunization records should be kept:
a. permanently.
b. for 5 years.
c. for 10 years.
d. until the age of maturity.
65. A subpoenaed medical record should alert the medical staff that:
a. the physician's attorney should be notified of the subpoena being received.
b. the records must be turned over to the judge on the specified date.
c. the physician and the patient are to be told that a subpoena has been served.
d. All of the above.
66. Those who would be covered under HIPAA include:
a. universities.
b. life insurers.
c. information systems vendors.
d. All of the above.
67. Researchers who wish to obtain individually identifiable medical information must:
a. pay the patient for the information that is obtained for the research.
b. pay the institution that has initially obtained the information from the patient.
c. use the information only after the patient is deceased.
d. obtain a patient authorization that complies with the rules set by HIPAA.
68. Violation of HIPAA is a:
a. state criminal offense.
b. local criminal offense.
c. misdemeanor.
d. federal criminal offense.
69. HIPAA allows all of the following except:
a. disclosure to clergy of patient admission to a facility.
b. physicians or hospitals to share patient information with each other to treat the patient.
c. complete disclosure of patient information by an EMT.
d. All of the above.
70. Suggestions for physicians and physician groups when implementing HIPAA include:
a. implementing a notice of privacy practices.
b. adopting procedures for handling patient requests.
c. appointing and training a privacy officer.
d. All of the above.
71. Wireless local area networks are used by physicians and nurses to:
a. access bank accounts for patients who are hospitalized.
b. access patient records from central databases.
c. add patient observations and assessments to databases.
d. b and c only.
72. The use of communications and information technologies to provide healthcare services to people at a distance is known as:
a. family practice.
b. clearinghouse.
c. telemedicine.
d. computer technology.
73. The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act:
a. permits competent adults to have organs donated by their parents.
b. permits minors to allow posthumous use of organs through a type of written document.
c. requires all persons to be organ donors.
d. permits competent adults to allow posthumous use of their organs through a written document.
74. The National Organ Transplant Law of 1984:
a. developed an allocation formula.
b. funds organ transplantation.
c. allows the sale of organs.
d. forbids the sale of organs.
75. An employee should state a preference for not wishing to be involved in assisting with a procedure:
a. when the situation arises.
b. only if absolutely necessary.
c. before being hired.
d. after the situation arises.
76. An institutional review board in a hospital or university receiving federal research funds:
a. oversees any human research in the facility.
b. permits genetic research on humans without consent.
c. regulates any animal research in the facility.
d. All of the above.
77. Placing the researcher's interests above the patient's interests is considered:
a. nontherapeutic.
b. a personal choice.
c. therapeutic.
d. a conflict of interest.
78. Standards of professional behavior practiced by physicians in their relationships or conduct with other physicians is called:
a. problem solving.
b. the medical code.
c. the code of ethics.
d. medical etiquette.
79. The administration of a lethal agent by another person to a patient for the purpose of relieving intolerable and incurable suffering is:
a. euthanasia.
b. gene therapy.
c. censure.
d. posthumous.
80. Voluntary sterilization of unmarried minors is:
a. common in most states.
b. allowed with authorization of the minor and parent or guardian in some states.
c. forbidden in many states.
d. b and c only.
81. Castration or sterilization of another person without legal permission is considered to be:
a. legal.
b. an automatic life sentence.
c. a misdemeanor.
d. assault and battery.
82. Initially, Roe v. Wade said that during the third trimester of pregnancy the state:
a. may prohibit abortions except to save the life of the mother.
b. did not require a viable fetus to be protected until the 7th month.
c. did not require the physician performing an abortion to be licensed.
d. only regulated the medical conditions under which an abortion may be performed.
83. A person appointed by the court to speak on behalf of an incapacitated party is called the:
a. conscience.
b. respondeat superior.
c. guardian ad litem.
d. guardian.
84. Pro-choice advocates believe that:
a. women have the right to choose what to do with their bodies.
b. a woman has the right to an abortion when she is the victim of rape or incest.
c. legalized abortions are safer for the woman.
d. All of the above.
85. The conscience clause refers to:
a. physicians and hospital personnel not being required to participate in sterilizations.
b. hospitals not choosing to perform sterilization procedures.
c. a and b only.
d. None of the above.
86. A means to detect couples who are at risk of passing on a genetic disease to their offspring is called:
a. amniocentesis.
b. eugenics.
c. genetic manipulation.
d. genetic counseling.
87. Justifications for euthanasia include:
a. individuals should have the right to determine the outcome of their lives.
b. modern technology may find a cure for a terminal disease.
c. there is value and dignity to every human life.
d. there is no certainty regarding death.
88. Advice regarding the course of action taken for a dying loved one can be given by:
a. any healthcare worker.
b. a nurse.
c. the physician.
d. All of the above.
89. A treatment or procedure that is morally required is considered:
a. extraordinary.
b. appropriate.
c. ordinary.
d. b and c only.
90. A facility with a homelike atmosphere where terminally ill patients find comfort until death is called a:
a. hostel.
b. hospice.
c. hospital.
d. All of the above.
91. The total care of patients whose disease is no longer responsive to curative therapy is:
a. preventive care.
b. hospice care.
c. palliative care.
d. euthanasia.
92. Healthcare facilities, in order to receive Medicare or Medicaid funding, must ask patients if they have:
a. long-term care insurance.
b. health insurance.
c. an advance directive.
d. life insurance.
93. A DNR order can be placed on the medical chart of a patient by the:
a. EMT.
b. physician.
c. pharmacist.
d. nurse.
94. What are health exchanges designed to offer?
a. requested health services
b. essential health benefits
c. medical record computerization
d. medical record organization
95. Which of the following do many hospitals establish in order to decrease preventable errors?
a. non-disciplinary adverse event reporting system
b. electronic health records
c. sentinel event committees
d. staff educational programs
96. The estimated number of children who are covered under the Children's Health Initiative Program is:
a. 5 million.
b. 6 million.
c. 7 million.
d. 4 million.
97. How is the Children's Health Initiative Program funded?
a. state and federal governments
b. volunteer donations
c. federal governments
d. state governments
98. What is the goal of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA)?
a. expand the health care provider's rights to individual protected health information
b. protect individuals from insurance premiums and deductibles
c. protect individual protected health information
d. expand insurance coverage throughout the country
99. Under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA), an individual with a preexisting condition is:
a. not eligible for insurance coverage.
b. eligible for insurance coverage.
c. not eligible for coverage, but may have a discount on medical services.
d. eligible for insurance coverage after required co-insurance is paid.
100. What is true regarding the cost of medical exchanges?
a. Services are priced based on a sliding scale.
b. Services are priced based on a national average.
c. Services are covered under the Affordable Care Act.
d. Services are free.