Business Law Examination
Part A - Multiple Choice Questions
1. What function of the law is being served when passing laws that prohibit discrimination at workplaces?
a. keeping the peace
b. providing a basis for compromise
c. maintaining the status quo
d. promoting social justice
2. Halfren, a county in the state of Halizona, is earthquake-prone. The governor of Halizona sets up a committee to explore the possible methods that could be used to minimize damage and loss of life. The committee found that a new technique of using steel reinforcements in building columns would help reduce overall damages. The findings were put to a debate at the local town hall, where it was accepted by a majority of the residents. The state government then passed a law making it mandatory to use the new technique while constructing new buildings in Halfren. Which of the following functions of the law did the state government of Halizona exhibit in this case?
a. promoting social justice
b. maximizing individual freedom
c. shaping moral standards
d. facilitating orderly change
3. What function of the law is being served when passing laws that protect the U.S. government from the risk of being forcefully overthrown?
a. maintaining the status quo
b. shaping moral standards
c. facilitating orderly change
d. promoting social justice
4. By allowing the U.S. citizens to practice any religion of their choice, what essential function of the law does the U.S. Constitution serve?
a. facilitating orderly change
b. maintaining the status quo
c. maximizing individual freedom
d. facilitating planning
5. Mark Walton was involved in a car accident in which the airbag of his car failed to deploy. He sued the car manufacturer for installing faulty airbags. But in the course of the case being heard in court, the car company and Mark decided to settle the lawsuit out of court. What important function of the law was served in this case?
a. promoting social justice
b. maximizing individual freedom
c. providing a basis for compromise
d. maintaining the status quo
6. The ________ hears cases brought against the United States.
a. U.S. Supreme Court
b. U.S. Tax Court
c. U.S. Court of Federal Claims
d. U.S. District Court
7. Which of the following courts are considered as the federal court system's intermediate appellate courts?
a. U.S. Courts of Appeals for Veterans Claims
b. U.S. courts of appeals
c. U.S. district courts
d. U.S. courts of federal claims
8. Why was the Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit created?
a. It was created to exercise appellate jurisdiction over members of the armed services.
b. It was created to hear cases that involve federal tax laws.
c. It was created to provide uniformity in the application of federal law in certain areas, particularly patent law.
d. It was created to hear appeals from intermediate appellate state courts and certain trial courts.
9. The U.S. Supreme Court is composed of ________ justices.
a. nine
b. six
c. ten
d. three
10. Which of the following courts was created by Article Ill of the U.S. Constitution?
a. U.S. Supreme Court
b. U.S. Tax Court
c. U.S. Court of Appeals
d. U.S. Court of Federal Claims
11. The term ________ refers to the oral testimony given by a party or witness prior to trial.
a. class action
b. deposition
c. interrogatory
d. intervention
12. Which of the following statements is true of a deposition?
a. A deposition has to be a written statement.
b. A witness's deposition is voluntary and not required pursuant to a court order.
c. A deposition is given post-trial.
d. A deponent is allowed to correct his or her answers before signing the deposition.
13. ________ are written questions submitted by one party to a lawsuit to another party.
a. Depositions
b. Rejoinders
c. Interrogatories
d. Summons
14. Which of the following motions asserts that based on supporting evidence outside the pleadings, there are no factual disputes to be decided by the jury, and the judge can apply the proper law to the undisputed facts and decide the case without a jury?
a. motion for summary judgment
b. motion for judgment on the pleadings
c. motion for a directed verdict
d. motion for judgment notwithstanding the verdict
15. A ________ alleges that if all the facts presented in the paperwork filed with the court to initiate or respond to the lawsuit are true, the party making the motion would win the lawsuit when the proper law is applied to these facts.
a. motion for judgment on the pleadings
b. motion for summary judgment
c. motion for judgment notwithstanding the verdict
d. motion to set aside judgment
16. Which of the following statements is true of the United States' Foreign Commerce Clause?
a. Regulation of foreign commerce by state governments is unconstitutional.
b. A state can enact a law that forbids a foreign country from doing business in that state if that country engages in activities that are not condoned by that state.
c. Direct regulation of foreign commerce by the federal government violates the Commerce Clause.
d. A state government is only permitted to regulate foreign trade indirectly.
17. Fierra Inc. is a German automobile manufacturer that has a five percent market share in the United States' automobile market. The company has a unit in North Carolina that imports Fierra automobiles from its parent company in Germany and assembles them. Which of the following measures is in accordance with U.S.A.'s Foreign Commerce Clause?
a. The government of North Carolina imposes an additional ten percent tax on Fierra cars.
b. The government of Georgia bans the sale of Fierra cars.
c. The government of North Carolina asks Fierra Inc. to shut down its import unit in the state.
d. The federal government imposes an additional hundred percent tax only on Fierra cars being sold in North Carolina.
18. Which of the following statements is true of states' police power?
a. Police power restricts states from regulating interstate commerce although it happens within their borders.
b. The states are allowed to regulate army activities within their borders.
c. The states are given the authority to enact laws that regulate the conduct of business within their borders.
d. The police force of a state is controlled by the federal police department.
19. Which of the following is enacted under state police power?
a. personal property laws
b. intellectual property laws
c. international trade laws
d. equal opportunity laws
20. Kingsland is a country that has been exporting apples to the United States for over a century, shipping 300 tons to Georgia each month. However, last month, Kingsland violated a trading norm which was not condoned by Georgia. Which of the following measures should be taken to regulate apple imports from Kingsland?
a. Georgia should stop trading with Kingsland after serving a notice.
b. Georgia should stop trading with Kingsland without serving a notice.
c. Georgia should appeal to the federal authority which can stop imports from Kingsland.
d. Georgia should make Kingsland export its apples to North Carolina.
21. The tort of defamation of character requires a plaintiff to prove that the defendant
a. publicized a private fact about the plaintiff
b. insulted people closely related to the plaintiff, such as family or friends
c. published an untrue statement of fact about the plaintiff to a third party
d. made one or more financial deals with the plaintiff under a false identity
22. Gary Govetty is a famous movie star. A tabloid published an interview with his ex-girlfriend in which she falsely claimed that Gary was completely bald and had been wearing a wig for several years. Gary can sue his ex-girlfriend for ________.
a. slander
b. invasion of the right to privacy
c. tort of appropriation
d. negligent infliction of emotional distress
23. Libel and slander constitute ________.
a. the tort of outrage
b. defamation of character
c. the tort of appropriation
d. intentional misrepresentation
24. ________ is a doctrine that says a person is liable for harm that is the foreseeable consequence of his or her actions.
a. The tort of outrage
b. The tort of misappropriation
c. Disparagement
d. Unintentional tort
25. The obligation people owe each other not to cause any unreasonable harm or risk of harm is termed ________.
a. libel
b. res ipsa loquitur
c. Good Samaritan law
d. the duty of care
Part II - Multiple Choice Questions
1. When is a criminal said to be judgment proof?
a. when the criminal has not been read his Fifth Amendment rights prior to his arrest
b. when the criminal does not have the money to pay a civil judgment
c. when the criminal is found to be unfit to go to prison
d. when the criminal has been deemed to be insane
2. A(n) ________ is a document for a person's detainment that is based on a showing of probable cause that the person committed a crime.
a. arrest warrant
b. possessory warrant
c. no-knock warrant
d. execution warrant
3. ________ is defined as the substantial likelihood that a person either committed or is about to commit a crime.
a. Preponderance of the evidence
b. Reasonable doubt
c. Probable cause
d. Reasonable suspicion
4. Which of the following is a difference between indictments and information statements?
a. Indictments are issued before a trial, while an information statement is issued after a trial.
b. Indictments are issued by a grand jury, while an information statement is issued by a magistrate.
c. Information statements are issued to dismiss a case before it goes to trial, while an indictment is issued to bring a case to trial.
d. Information statements are issued without determining guilt, while an indictment is issued where guilt is evident.
5. A(n) ________ is a charge of having committed a crime, usually a felony, based on the judgment of a grand jury.
a. arraignment
b. information statement
c. indictment
d. plea
6. At what stage of the criminal procedure is the accused asked to enter a plea?
a. when the accused is taken to an arraignment
b. while an indictment or information statement is being issued
c. when the accused is being booked
d. when the accused is being arrested
7. Which of the following is a necessary condition for a contract to be considered valid?
a. It can be voided by both parties.
b. It can be voided by one of the parties.
c. It is enforceable by both parties.
d. It is enforceable by at least one of the parties.
8. While Harry was intoxicated, he sold his car to Ben for substantially less than its fair market value. This contract is considered ________.
a. valid
b. voidable
c. void
d. unenforceable
9. Noelle uses blackmail to force Jeff to sign a contract for the sale of his home. This contract is ________.
a. unenforceable
b. valid
c. void
d. voidable
10. If a contract is required to be in writing under the Statute of Frauds but is not, the contract is ________.
a. executed
b. unilateral
c. unenforceable
d. formal
11. A contract that has been fully performed by one party but not by the other party is a(n) ________ contract.
a. void
b. voidable
c. executory
d. executed
12. Elizabeth signs a contract to purchase a new car from Quickcash Motors. She has not yet paid for the car, and Quickcash Motors has not yet delivered the car to Elizabeth. This is an example of a(n) ________ contract.
a. unenforceable
b. executory
c. void
d. executed
13. Most Web pages use electronic ordering systems that do not have the ability to evaluate and accept ________.
a. counteroffers
b. e-licenses
c. e-signatures
d. biometric data
14. The ________ establishes a uniform and comprehensive set of rules that govern the creation, performance, and enforcement of computer information transactions.
a. CAN-SPAM Act
b. UCITA
c. ECPA
d. ACPA
15. Which of the following is true of the UCITA?
a. It establishes a uniform set of rules that prohibit all forms of cybersquatting.
b. It establishes the Statute of Frauds for all online content.
c. It aims at eliminating all domain names registered in bad faith.
d. It becomes a law only when a state legislature enacts it as a statute.
16. A ________ refers to a contract that transfers limited rights in intellectual property and information rights.
a. contract
b. tender
c. license
d. domain name
17. A ________ is an owner of intellectual property or information rights who transfers rights in the property or information to another party.
a. lessor
b. lessee
c. licensee
d. licensor
18. A ________ refers to a party who is granted limited rights in or access to intellectual property or information rights owned by another party.
a. lessor
b. lessee
c. licensee
d. licensor
19. The UCC rule that says that a merchant who offers to buy, sell, or lease goods and gives a written and signed assurance on a separate form that the offer will be held open cannot revoke the offer for the time stated or, if no time is stated, for a reasonable time is referred to as the ________.
a. gap-filling rule
b. firm offer rule
c. mirror-image rule
d. open term rule
20. A contract is created when ________.
a. the acceptance has been received by the offeror
b. an acknowledgement is sent by the offeror to the offeree of receiving an acceptance
c. the offeree sends an acceptance to the offeror
d. a written acceptance has been passed between the offeror and the offeree
21. According to the mirror image rule, which of the following is true of additional terms being added in an acceptance?
a. They are considered to be counteroffers.
b. They can be added when the sale is between a merchant and a non-merchant.
c. They can be added to the contract without the consent of the offeror.
d. They are considered to constitute acceptance.
22. The ________ requires all contracts for the sale of goods costing $500 or more and lease contracts involving payments of $1,000 or more to be in writing.
a. parol evidence rule
b. open price term
c. firm offer rule
d. Statute of Frauds
23. Kimberley, a merchant seller in Kansas, had an oral contract to sell goods to Jane, a merchant buyer in Memphis, for $100,000. Two days after contracting, Kimberley sends a sufficient written confirmation to Jane of the agreed-upon transaction. Jane, who has reason to know the contents of the written confirmation, fails to immediately object to the contents of the confirmation. Two weeks after receiving the written confirmation, Jane receives delivery of the goods from Kimberley, and Jane then sends an objection to the written confirmation to Kimberley. Which of the following is true of the contract between Kimberley and Jane?
a. The Statute of Frauds can be raised against the contract because a letter of objection was sent to the offeror.
b. The offer is valid as the offeree knew the contents of the confirmation and did not object within 10 days.
c. The contract is void as the offeror did not receive a letter of confirmation from the offeree for delivery.
d. The Statute of Frauds can be raised because the offeree did not sign the contract.
24. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the risk of loss in a shipment contract after the seller delivers conforming goods to the carrier?
a. The seller bears the risk of loss during transportation.
b. The buyer bears the risk of loss during transportation.
c. The seller and the buyer equally bear the risk of loss during transportation.
d. The seller bears one-third of the risk of loss and the buyer bears two-thirds of the risk of loss during transportation.
25. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the risk of loss in a destination contract after the seller delivers conforming goods to the carrier?
a. The seller bears the risk of loss during transportation.
b. The buyer bears the risk of loss during transportation.
c. The seller and the buyer equally bear the risk of loss during transportation.
d. The buyer bears one-third of the risk of loss and the seller bears two-thirds of the risk of loss during transportation.
Part III - Multiple Choice Questions
1. An association of two or more persons to carry on as co-owners of a business for profit is known as a ________.
a. limited partnership
b. sole proprietorship
c. corporation
d. general partnership
2. An organization or venture must have a ________ motive in order to qualify as a partnership.
a. large-scale expansion
b. noncommercial
c. profit
d. target market
3. Which of the following is true of a general partnership?
a. A business must generate a profit in order to qualify as a general partnership.
b. The general partners need not be the co-owners of the business.
c. A general partnership may be formed with little or no formality.
d. Charity organizations and schools are usually formed as general partnerships.
4. Where a partnership agreement provides for the sharing of profits but is silent as to how losses are to be shared, ________.
a. losses are shared in the same proportion as profits
b. losses are shared in greater proportion than profits
c. profits are shared in greater proportion than losses
d. losses are absorbed by the partnership entity rather than borne by the individual partners
5. Which of the following is true in the creation of a general partnership?
a. The business name must include the names of all partners.
b. The business name cannot be a fictitious name.
c. The name selected by the partnership cannot indicate that it is a corporation.
d. The business cannot operate under a trade name.
6. Which of the following must be in writing under the Statute of Frauds?
a. a business that has more than one commercial venture
b. a partnership that is authorized to deal in real estate
c. a business that is authorized to lend money
d. an enterprise that deals in health and medicine
7. An LLC that was organized in Alabama and is operating in Texas with no operations outside the United States is considered a ________ in Texas.
a. foreign limited liability company
b. limited liability partnership
c. domestic limited liability company
d. general partnership
8. Sam Muller and Toby Richardson form an LLC in the state of Delaware. In the articles of organization, they specify the duration of the LLC as 25 years from the date of filing the articles of organization. Which of the following is true in this context?
a. The LLC is invalid as it does not specify a date of termination.
b. The LLC may be dissolved at will any time after 25 years from the date of filing the articles of organization.
c. Muller and Richardson have formed a term LLC.
d. Muller and Richardson have formed an at-will LLC.
9. A(n) ________ refers to a document that evidences a member's ownership interest in an LLC.
a. certificate of interest
b. distributional interest
c. operating agreement
d. agreement of conversion
10. The certificate of interest acts the same as a(n) ________ issued by a corporation.
a. promissory note
b. stock certificate
c. deposit note
d. initial public offer
11. A(n) ________ refers to an agreement among members that governs the affairs and business of the LLC and the relations among members, managers, and the LLC.
a. certificate of interest
b. franchise agreement
c. operating agreement
d. agreement of conversion
12. Peter, Preston, and Penny organize an LLC in January. While composing the operating agreement, they forget to include an amendment clause. Six months later, the situation demands an amendment to the operating agreement. Which of the following would best apply in this scenario?
a. The operating agreement can be amended if all three members approve.
b. The operating agreement cannot be amended as it contains no amendment provision.
c. The operating agreement can be amended with the affirmative majority of all shareholders.
d. The operating agreement can be amended only 60 days after a new amendment provision is included.
13. A(n) ________ efers to a document that an issuer of securities files with the Securities and
Exchange Commission (SEC) that contains required information about the issuer, the securities to be issued, and other relevant information.
a. article of organization
b. operating statement
c. registration statement
d. certificate of interest
14. Which of the following must be included in the registration statement?
a. judgments passed by the SEC on the merits of the securities offered
b. how proceeds from the offering will be used
c. the date of termination of the initial public offering
d. the maximum number of times a share can be sold post-issue
15. Utilities Inc. decided to go public by an initial public offering. It sold securities, some of which were bought by James Jefferson. Six months later, Mr. Jefferson sold the Utilities shares he had purchased to Martha Graham and Mark Franco. Two years later, Mr. Jefferson bought back the Utilities shares from Ms. Graham and Mr. Franco and made a profit out of both transactions. Identify the issuer in this scenario.
a. Utilities Inc.
b. James Jefferson
c. Martha Graham
d. Mark Franco
16. Which of the following is true of a registration statement?
a. A registration statement must be accompanied by financial statements certified by certified public accountants.
b. Once submitted, a registration statement cannot be amended.
c. The SEC judges the merits of the securities based on the registration statement.
d. A registration statement need not reveal how a company plans on using the proceeds from the offering.
17. A(n) ________ is submitted along with the registration statement to the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), and is also used as a selling tool to help prospective investors evaluate the financial risk of an investment.
a. organization document
b. certificate of interest
c. prospectus
d. operation agreement
18. Scissorwire Inc. sells shares of its stock to the public, with each share valued at $16. After a year, the company incurs a loss and the price of the stock drops to $5 per share. The company reveals that it had deliberately not registered with the SEC before going public and that it has no money to pay the investors. Which of the following is true in this situation?
a. Scissorwire Inc. can register with the SEC at any point after the decline in share price.
b. The U.S. government can file a criminal lawsuit against Scissorwire Inc. to seek criminal penalties.
c. The investors were negligent in failing to verify registration prior to stock purchase, and therefore cannot rescind their purchase.
d. Scissorwire Inc. is liable for violation of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
19. The ________ is the federal agency responsible for enforcing most federal antidiscrimination laws.
a. EEOC
b. FEPA
c. ADEA
d. BFOQ
20. Which of the following is true of the EEOC?
a. It can seek injunctive relief.
b. Its members are elected from state legislatures.
c. Its jurisdiction is limited to charges of racial discrimination.
d. A person should file a complaint with EEOC after filing a discriminatory lawsuit against the employer.
21. A complainant may file his or her employment discrimination claim with the ________ instead of the EEOC.
a. ADA
b. ADEA
c. FEPA
d. BFOQ
22. If the EEOC chooses not to bring suit, it issues a(n) ________ to the complainant.
a. affirmative defense
b. right to sue letter
c. filing date
d. document of claim
23. Which of the following is true of the right to sue letter issued by the EEOC?
a. It is issued when the EEOC chooses to bring suit.
b. It is issued when the EEOC finds a violation and chooses not to bring suit, or when it does not find a violation.
c. It is issued when the complainant is found guilty.
d. It is issued only when the discrimination is racial in nature.
24. The ________ is a federal statute that permits a complainant to file an employment discrimination claim against an employer within 180 days of the most recent paycheck violation.
a. Civil Rights Act of 1968
b. Title II of GINA
c. Civil Rights Act of 1964
d. Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act
25. A female is hired by an employer as an employee. During a 36-month period, the employer engages in pay act violations and underpays the female employee each pay period. According to the Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act of 2009, how long does the female employee have to file her claim?
a. within three years from her initial date of hire
b. within 90 days from the initial paycheck violation
c. within 180 days from the last paycheck violation
d. within one year from the last paycheck violation
Part IV - Multiple Choice Questions
1. The OSHA guidelines that set safety rules for specific equipment, procedures, types of work, and unique work conditions are known as ________.
a. standards of wellness
b. specific duty standards
c. the code of direction
d. general standards of work
2. The ________ is an OSHA standard that requires an employer to provide a work environment free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to employees.
a. general duty standard
b. specific duty standard
c. code of wellness
d. nonhazardous work environment imprimatur
3. Which of the following is true of OSHA's general duty standard?
a. The standard must be established with each safety regulation.
b. It requires an employer to provide a work environment that does not result in employee mental stress.
c. An employer is required to provide a work environment that is free from recognized hazards.
d. OSHA has no authority regarding employer safety violations, since it is merely a model act.
4. The FLSA applies to ________.
a. state government employees
b. federal government employees
c. private employers and employees engaged in the production of goods for interstate commerce
d. self-employed U.S. citizens
5. The ________ forbids the use of oppressive child labor and makes it unlawful to ship goods produced by businesses that use oppressive child labor.
a. OSHA
b. ERISA
c. FMLA
d. FLSA
6. Which of the following gives employees the right to join together to form a union?
a. The Wagner Act
b. Section 3 of the Landrum-Griffin Act
c. Section 7 of the NLRA
d. Section 1 of the Taft-Hartley Act
7. The________ is required to supervise all contested union elections.
a. Congress of Industrial Organizations (CIO)
b. American Federation of Labor (AFL)
c. National Labor Relations Board (NLRB)
d. Election Assistance Commission (EAC)
8. A ________ union election can be held without NLRB supervision.
a. dissent
b. consent
c. decertification
d. conditional
9. M'ore Mining Company's employees want a union to represent their rights. All of the employees live in company-owned employee housing adjacent to their place of work. In order for a union to be established, solicitation must be carried out by pro-union employees. Which of the following rules may assist those employees in their union solicitation efforts on M'ore Mining Company property?
a. the incompatibility caveat
b. the incontestability exclusion
c. the inaccessibility exception
d. the insubordination proviso
10. Which of the following is a provision of Section 8(a) of the NLRA?
a. prohibits unions from engaging in unfair labor practices that interfere with a union election
b. makes it an unfair labor practice for an employer to restrain employees from forming and joining unions
c. enables employees to opt out of unions by organizing a decertification election
d. permits employees and union officials to engage in union solicitation on company property
11. The two tests the U.S. Supreme Court has developed for determining the lawfulness of a restraint are the rule of reason and the ________.
a. Noerr doctrine
b. per se rule
c. nolo contendere rule
d. Colgate doctrine
12. Under the ________, the court must examine the pro- and anti-competitive effects of a challenged restraint.
a. Noerr doctrine
b. rule of reason
c. per se rule
d. consent decree
13. The ________ is a rule that is applicable to restraints of trade considered inherently anticompetitive.
a. consent decree
b. Noerr doctrine
c. per se rule
d. rule of reason
14. Which of the following is true of the per se rule in restraint of trade?
a. It fails to permit any defenses and justifications to save the restraint of trade.
b. It applies only to restraints that are found to be unreasonable with certain evidentiary standards being met.
c. It applies to restraints that are based primarily on the firm's market share and power.
d. It requires a balancing of the positive and negative effects of the challenged restraint.
15. The rule of reason is characterized by ________.
a. an automatic violation of Section 1 of the Sherman Act
b. an inherently anticompetitive nature
c. a lack of need for any evidence to deem the restraint unreasonable
d. an evaluation of the company's market share, power, and other relevant factors
16. ________ laws are federal and state statutes and regulations that promote product safety and prohibit abusive, unfair, and deceptive business practices.
a. Profit-a-prendre
b. Canon
c. Consumer protection
d. Caveat emptor
17. The ________ is a federal administrative agency that is primarily responsible for regulating the safety of meat, poultry, and other food products.
a. U.S. Department of Agriculture
b. Consumer Product Safety Commission
c. Food and Drug Administration
d. Federal Trade Commission
18. Jones & Hilton Co. owned a large cold storage warehouse where they stored and processed meat and meat products. An insider revealed to the media that the facility failed to meet numerous safety standards, encountered rodent infestation, and sold potentially harmful and infected meat in the market without notifying authorities. The ________ has the authority to conduct inspections of the cold storage warehouse and initiate legal proceedings against the owners for endangering the health of consumers.
a. Food and Drug Administration
b. Consumer Product Safety Commission
c. Federal Healthcare Commission
d. U.S. Department of Agriculture
19. In which of the following cases of consumer safety violations will the U.S. Department of Agriculture be required to take action?
a. A new drug was released into the market without adequate testing and this lead to adverse side effects among users.
b. A brand of soft toys for infants was produced with low grade foam and fabrics that are harmful for children when ingested.
c. A batch of sausages and cold cuts from a particular vendor was found to have high levels of salmonella and other pathogenic organisms.
d. A fleet of cars released into the market by a famous company was found to have a defective braking system which could prove fatal for owners.
20. The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act is a federal statute that ________.
a. covers all food products including poultry and processed meat
b. regulates the safety of food additives, drugs, cosmetics, and medicinal devices
c. implements the Federal Meat Inspection Act, enacted in 1906
d. protects the public by providing greater medical coverage from food-related illnesses
21. Each state is required to prepare a ________ that sets out how the state plans to meet the federal standards set by NAAQS.
a. strategic environmental assessment (SEA)
b. comprehensive protection assessment (CPA)
c. state assessment plan (SAP)
d. state implementation plan (SIP)
22. Which of the following is true of national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS)?
a. The federal government has the right to enforce NAAQS if the states fail to do so.
b. State governments are responsible for setting standards for air quality in their respective states.
c. Human beings are protected under the secondary level of NAAQS.
d. Only standards for oxides of elements and particulate matter are evaluated under NAAQS.
23. A geographical area that does not meet established air quality standards is designated as a ________.
a. limited pollution area
b. nonattainment area
c. non-regulated area
d. federal regulation area
24. In a survey of the nonattainment areas in a state, the state air pollution regulatory authority found Region 3 to be the region that exceeded the ozone standard by the largest margin, far exceeding the air pollution levels in all other regions of the state. Region 3 is most likely to be categorized as a(n) ________ nonattainment area.
a. atypical
b. extreme
c. marginal
d. serious
25. Which of the following measures is most likely to reduce indoor air pollution in an office building?
a. complete air conditioning with sealed windows
b. heavy insulation
c. the closure of all air ducts
d. a prohibition on copy machines